Friday, May 16, 2025

MLA-C01 AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate Exam

 

Category Associate
Exam duration 130 minutes
Exam format 65 questions
Cost  USD. Visit Exam pricing for additional cost information, including foreign exchange rates
Intended candidate Individuals with at least 1 year of experience using Amazon SageMaker and other ML engineering AWS services
Candidate role examples backend software developer, DevOps engineer, data engineer, MLOps engineer, and data scientist
Languages offered English, Japanese, Korean, and Simplified Chinese
Level: Associate
Format: 65 questions (multiple-choice, multiple-response, matching, ordering, and case studies)
Duration: 130 minutes
Passing Score: Scaled score of 720 out of 1000

Intended Audience
This certification is ideal for professionals with at least one year of experience in roles such as:

* Backend Software Developer
* DevOps Engineer
* Data Engineer
* MLOps Engineer
* Data Scientist([Amazon Web Services, Inc.

Candidates should have hands-on experience with Amazon SageMaker and other AWS ML services.

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Amazon Associate MLA-C01 Exams

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Exam Domains
The exam covers four key domains:

1. Data Preparation for Machine Learning
* Ingesting, transforming, and validating data for ML modeling.

2. ML Model Development
* Selecting modeling approaches, training models, tuning hyperparameters, and managing model versions.

3. Deployment and Orchestration of ML Workloads
* Choosing deployment infrastructure, provisioning compute resources, and configuring auto-scaling.

4. ML Solution Monitoring, Maintenance, and Security
* Setting up CI/CD pipelines, monitoring models and infrastructure, and ensuring security compliance.

Preparation Resources

To prepare effectively for the MLA-C01 exam, consider the following resources:
AWS Exam Guide: Provides detailed information about the exam structure and content.
AWS Skill Builder: Offers a structured exam prep plan with practice questions.

AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate validates technical ability in implementing ML workloads in production and operationalizing them. Boost your career profile and credibility, and position yourself for in-demand machine learning job roles.

Prepare for the exam
Go from start to certified. Follow our Exam Prep Plan on AWS Skill Builder, our online learning center, so you can approach exam day with confidence.

1 Get to know the exam with exam-style questions
Follow the 4-step plan.
Review the exam guide.

Take the AWS Certification Official Practice Question Set to understand exam-style questions.

2 Refresh your AWS knowledge and skills
Enroll in digital courses where you need to fill gaps in knowledge and skills, practice with AWS Builder Labs, AWS Cloud Quest, and AWS Jam.

3 Review and practice for your exam
Review the scope of the exam. Explore each exam domain’s topics and how they align to AWS services. Reinforce your knowledge and identify learning gaps with exam-style questions and flashcards. Follow instructors as they walk through exam-style questions and provide test-taking strategies. Continue practicing with AWS Builder Labs and/or AWS SimuLearn.

4 Assess your exam readiness
Take the AWS Certification Official Pretest.

Key FAQs to help you get started
Who should earn AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate?

The ideal candidate for this exam has at least 1 year of experience in machine learning engineering or a related field and 1 year of hands-on experience with AWS services. Professionals who do not have prior machine learning experience can take the training available in the Exam Prep Plans and get started building their knowledge and skills.

How will the AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate help my career?

Per the World Economic Forum Future of Jobs Report 2023, demand for AI and Machine Learning Specialists is expected to grow by 40%. However, 70% of North American IT leaders say they have the greatest difficulty filling AI/ML specialist roles. This certification can position you for in-demand machine learning jobs in AWS Cloud.

How is AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate different from AWS Certified Machine Learning - Specialty?
AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate is a role-based certification designed for ML engineers and MLOps engineers with at least one year of experience in AI/ML.

AWS Machine Learning - Specialty is a specialty certification covering topics across data engineering, data analysis, modeling, and ML implementation and ops. It is more suitable for individuals with 2 or more years of experience developing, architecting, and running ML workloads on AWS.

What certification(s) should I earn next after AWS Certified Machine Learning Engineer - Associate?
For professionals looking to dive deeper into machine learning, we recommend AWS Certified Machine Learning - Specialty.

How long is this certification valid for?
This certification is valid for 3 years. Before your certification expires, you can recertify by passing the latest version of this exam. Learn more about recertification options for AWS Certifications.


Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
Case Study
A company is building a web-based AI application by using Amazon SageMaker.
The application will provide the following capabilities and features: ML experimentation, training, a
central model registry, model deployment, and model monitoring.
The application must ensure secure and isolated use of training data during the ML lifecycle.
The training data is stored in Amazon S3.
The company needs to use the central model registry to manage different versions of models in the application.
Which action will meet this requirement with the LEAST operational overhead?

A. Create a separate Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR) repository for each model.
B. Use Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR) and unique tags for each model version.
C. Use the SageMaker Model Registry and model groups to catalogthe models.
D. Use the SageMaker Model Registry and unique tags for each model version.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Case Study
A company is building a web-based AI application by using Amazon SageMaker.
The application will provide the following capabilities and features: ML experimentation, training, a central model registry, model deployment, and model monitoring.
The application must ensure secure and isolated use of training data during the ML lifecycle.
The training data is stored in Amazon S3.
The company is experimenting with consecutive training jobs.
How can the company MINIMIZE infrastructure startup times for these jobs?

A. Use Managed Spot Training.
B. Use SageMaker managed warm pools.
C. Use SageMaker Training Compiler.
D. Use the SageMaker distributed data parallelism (SMDDP) library.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Case Study
A company is building a web-based AI application by using Amazon SageMaker.
The application will provide the following capabilities and features: ML experimentation, training,
a central model registry, model deployment, and model monitoring.
The application must ensure secure and isolated use of training data during the ML lifecycle.
The training data is stored in Amazon S3.
The company must implement a manual approval-based workflow to ensure that only approved models can be deployed to production endpoints.
Which solution will meet this requirement?

A. Use SageMaker Experiments to facilitate the approval process during model registration.
B. Use SageMaker ML Lineage Tracking on the central model registry. Create tracking entities for the approval process.
C. Use SageMaker Model Monitor to evaluate the performance of the model and to manage the approval.
D. Use SageMaker Pipelines. When a model version is registered, use the AWS SDK to change the approval status to "Approved."

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Case Study
A company is building a web-based AI application by using Amazon SageMaker.
The application will provide the following capabilities and features: ML experimentation, training, a central model registry, model deployment, and model monitoring.
The application must ensure secure and isolated use of training data during the ML lifecycle.
The training data is stored in Amazon S3.
The company needs to run an on-demand workflow to monitor bias drift for models that are deployed to real-time endpoints from the application.
Which action will meet this requirement?

A. Configure the application to invoke an AWS Lambda function that runs a SageMaker Clarify job.
B. Invoke an AWS Lambda function to pull the sagemaker-model-monitor-analyzer built-in SageMaker image.
C. Use AWS Glue Data Quality to monitor bias.
D. Use SageMaker notebooks to compare the bias.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
A company stores historical data in .csv files in Amazon S3. Only some of the rows and columns in the .csv files are populated.
The columns are not labeled. An ML engineer needs to prepare and store the data so that the company can use the data to train ML models.
Select and order the correct steps from the following list to perform this task. Each step should be
selected one time or not at all. (Select and order three.)
Create an Amazon SageMaker batch transform job for data cleaning and feature engineering.
Store the resulting data back in Amazon S3.
Use Amazon Athena to infer the schemas and available columns.
Use AWS Glue crawlers to infer the schemas and available columns.
Use AWS Glue DataBrew for data cleaning and feature engineering.

Answer:

Explanation:
Step 1: Use AWS Glue crawlers to infer the schemas and available columns.
Step 2: Use AWS Glue DataBrew for data cleaning and feature engineering.
Step 3: Store the resulting dat back in Amazon 89

Thursday, May 15, 2025

H19-301_V4.0 HCSA-Presales-IP Network V4.0 Exam

 

H19-301_V4.0 HCSA-Presales-IP Network V4.0 Exam

The Huawei H19-301\_V4.0 exam, officially titled HCSA-Presales-IP Network V4.0, is designed for professionals aiming to validate their expertise in Huawei's IP networking solutions.
This certification is particularly beneficial for individuals involved in presales, solution design, and network planning roles.

Exam Overview
Exam Code: H19-301\_V4.0
Certification: Huawei Certified Sales Associate (HCSA) – Presales-IP Network V4.0
Exam Format: Approximately 107 questions, comprising single-choice and multiple-choice types 
Language: English
Delivery Method: Online or at authorized Huawei testing centers

Key Exam Topics
The H19-301\_V4.0 exam assesses knowledge in several critical areas:
Campus Networks: Understanding hierarchical switch designs and wireless architectures
Data Center Networks (DCNs): Implementing spine-leaf architectures and overlay protocols like VXLAN/BGP-EVPN
Enterprise WAN Solutions: Utilizing MPLS, SD-WAN, and VPNs for interconnectivity
Network Security: Deploying firewalls, IPS/IDS, NAC, and VPN technologies

These topics reflect the latest trends and technologies in Huawei's networking solutions, ensuring that certified professionals are equipped with up-to-date knowledge .

Transition from V3.0 to V4.0
The H19-301\_V4.0 exam is an updated version of the previous V3.0, incorporating new content areas such as WAN solutions, NetEngine products, and the Scenario-based Configuration Tool (SCT). This update ensures that candidates are proficient in the most current Huawei technologies and practices .

Preparation Resources
Benefits of Certification
Achieving the HCSA-Presales-IP Network V4.0 certification demonstrates a solid understanding of Huawei's IP networking solutions, enhancing your professional credibility and potentially opening doors to advanced career opportunities in the networking field.

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Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
[Huawei Data Center Network Products and Solutions]
VXLAN uses MAC-in-UDP encapsulation to extend Layer 2 networks. It encapsulates Ethernet frames
into IP packets for routing, without considering the MAC addresses of VMs. In addition, routed
networks are not limited by the network architecture and support large-scale scalability. VM
migration through routed networks is also not limited by the network architecture.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
[Huawei Campus Network Solution and Switch Products]
The free mobility solution allows a user on a campus network to obtain the same network access
policy regardless of the user's location and IP address. When configuring a policy, the administrator
does not need to pay attention to the IP address ranges of different users, but only needs to focus on
the logical access relationships between users and servers.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
[Data Communication Network Basics]
What are the characteristics of Segment Routing?

A. Its deployment is dependent on the controller.
B. It introduces the source routing mechanism conforming to SDN.
C. Its deployment is dependent on LDP and RSVP.
D. It reduces the number of protocols and extends IGP/BGP to support label distribution without depending on LDP or RSVP.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION 4
[Huawei Network Security Products and Solutions]
If only one firewall is deployed at the egress of the network, a failure on the firewall will affect
services on the entire network. To improve network reliability, you can deploy two or more firewalls
and set up a stack system. Member firewalls do not need to be managed independently.
You only need to configure the stack system.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
[Huawei Data Center Network Products and Solutions]
Which of the following statements are true about the underlay and overlay concepts on a data center network? (Select all that apply)

A. After implementing overlay technology, there is no need to deploy routing protocols or static routes on the underlay network.
B. An underlay network is a bearer network consisting of various physical devices, such as switches and VAS devices.
C. Overlay technology is a tunneling method that encapsulates service packets and transmits them transparently over the underlay network, with the origin recovered after reaching their destination.
D. Overlay is a software-defined logical network built on the underlay network using VXLAN.

Answer: B,C,D

Tuesday, May 13, 2025

220-1202 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Exam

 

Exam Codes
CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) and 220-1202 (Core 2)
Candidates must complete both 1201 and 1202 to earn certification. Exams cannot be combined across the series.

Launch Date : March 2025

Exam Description
CompTIA A+ 220-1201 covers mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing.

CompTIA A+ 220-1202 covers operating systems, security, software and operational procedures.

Number of Questions
Maximum of 90 questions per exam

Type of Questions
Multiple choice questions (single and multiple response), drag and drops and performance-based

Length of Test
90 Minutes per exam

Passing Score
220-1201: 675 (on a scale of 900)
220-1202: 700 (on a scale of 900)

Recommended Experience
9 to 12 months hands-on experience in the lab or field

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Languages
English, German, and Japanese

Retirement
TBD – Usually three years after launch

DoD 8140 Approved Work Roles Technical Support Specialist, System Administrator, Cyber Defense Infrastructure Support Specialist | For more information, click here

Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program

Certification Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skill set. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA A+ certification is good for three years from the day of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like A+ itself, CompTIA A+ CE also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA A+ certification. Complete CertMaster CE, an online, self-paced CE course, or collect at least 20 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years, upload them to your certification account, and A+ will automatically renew.

Want more details? Learn more about the CompTIA Continuing Education program.
As technology continues to evolve, so must the certifications that validate IT professionals' skills. CompTIA has announced a significant update to its flagship A+ certification program with the release of the new CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) and 220-1202 (Core 2) exams. These updated exams replace the retiring 220-1101 and 220-1102, which will officially be retired on September 25, 2025 (English version). If you're planning to launch your IT career or validate your technical support skills, now is the perfect time to start preparing. With the latest CompTIA A+ 220-1201 and 220-1202 exam questions from PassQuestion, you can ensure a smooth certification journey and pass on your first attempt.


Sample Question and Answers

QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
You are configuring a home network for a customer. The customer has requested the ability to access a Windows PC remotely, and needs all chat and optional functions to work in their game console.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to complete the network configuration for the customer. Each option may
only be used once, and not all options will be used.
Then, click the + sign to place each device in its appropriate location.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.
Wireless AP LAN
Firewall Screened Subnet
Answer: See
explanation below.
Explanation:
The completed configuration:
1. Wireless AP (LAN side)
1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1
2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK
2. Router (port-forward rule)
1. Allow TCP Any 3389
This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP9) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.
3. Firewall (screened subnet side)
1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1
4. Device placement
1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).
2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).
3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

QUESTION 2
A technician needs to provide remote support for a legacy Linux-based operating system from their Windows laptop.
The solution needs to allow the technician to see what the user is doing and provide the ability to interact with the user's session.
Which of the following remote access technologies would support the use case?

A. VPN
B. VNC
C. SSH
D. RDP

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The correct answer is VNC (Virtual Network Computing). VNC is a graphical desktop-sharing system
that uses the Remote Frame Buffer protocol (RFB) to remotely control another computer. It is
platform-independent and widely supported on Linux, which makes it ideal for providing interactive
remote support for a Linux-based operating system. It allows the technician not only to view the
remote desktop session but also to control it, fulfilling the need to see and interact with the users session.
A . VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates a secure tunnel to a network but does not provide desktop sharing or session control by itself.
C . SSH (Secure Shell) provides secure command-line access to Unix/Linux systems but does not offer
graphical desktop interaction, which is a requirement in this case.
D . RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is primarily a Microsoft protocol, and although it can be made to
work on Linux, it is not natively supported on legacy Linux systems, and thus less suitable than VNC in this scenario.
oe… CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:
Objective 1.8 “ Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.
Under this objective, candidates are expected to be familiar with remote access technologies,
including RDP, SSH, and VNC, and understand their appropriate uses and limitations on different
platforms such as Windows and Linux.

QUESTION 3
A technician is attempting to join a workstation to a domain but is receiving an error message stating
the domain cannot be found. However, the technician is able to ping the server and access the internet. Given the following information:
IP Address “ 192.168.1.210
Subnet Mask “ 255.255.255.0
Gateway “ 192.168.1.1
DNS1 “ 8.8.8.8
DNS2 “ 1.1.1.1
Server “ 192.168.1.10
Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?

A. Change the DNS settings.
B. Assign a static IP address.
C. Configure a subnet mask.
D. Update the default gateway.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The issue described”oedomain cannot be found despite the ability to ping the server and access the
internet”indicates a DNS resolution problem, not a network connectivity issue. The workstation is
currently using public DNS servers (8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1) which cannot resolve internal domain names,
such as the ones used in Active Directory environments. To resolve this, the technician needs to
change the DNS settings to point to the internal DNS server, which in most domain setups is the
domain controller itself (likely 192.168.1.10 in this case).
Heres the breakdown of the incorrect options:
B . Assign a static IP address: The IP is already assigned and functioning; the device can ping and
reach the network and internet.
C . Configure a subnet mask: The subnet mask is appropriate for the network range (Class C ).
D . Update the default gateway: The gateway is valid and allows internet access; this is not the issue.
oe… CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:
Objective 1.8 “ Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.
Under this objective, candidates must know how to troubleshoot OS-based network configurations,
including proper DNS settings in domain environments.

QUESTION 4
A network technician notices that most of the company's network switches are now end-of-life and need to be upgraded. Which of the following should the technician do first?

A Implement the change
B. Approve the change.
C. Propose the change.
D. Schedule the change.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a structured change-management process, the very first step is to propose (or formally request)
the change via a Request for Change (RFC). This ensures stakeholders review the need, assess risks,
and determine the priority before any approvals, scheduling, or implementation occur.

QUESTION 5

MFA for a custom web application on a user's smartphone is no longer working.
The last time the user remembered it working was before taking a vacation to another country.
Which of the following should the technician do first?

A. Verify the date and time settings.
B. Apply mobile OS patches.
C. Uninstall and reinstall the application.
D. Escalate to the website developer.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Time-based one-time password (TOTP) MFA apps rely on accurate clock synchronization.
Traveling can desynchronize the devices clock, causing generated codes to be invalid.
Ensuring the smartphones date/time (and time zone) are correct will typically restore MFA functionality immediately.

Thursday, May 8, 2025

C_BCSBS_2502 SAP Certified Associate - Positioning SAP Business Suite Exam

 

Validate your SAP skills and expertise
This certification verifies that the candidate possesses the core skills and knowledge of SAP Business Suite and the expertise to effectively position, articulate, and recommend its solutions in the market. It validates the candidate's ability to comprehend core solution capabilities, underlying architectural principles, and the strategic value proposition. The certification also assesses the candidate’s skill in identifying and aligning solution features with specific buying centers and their distinct business challenges.

Stay certified and stay ahead
Continuous learning and keeping your skills up to date is a priority and SAP Certification makes it easy for you to maintain your SAP skills and valid credentials.

The standard validity of your certification is 12 months.
Every time you successfully complete an assessment, the validity period is extended by 12 more months.
You’ll receive personalized communication to ensure that you don’t miss your certification expiry date.

Topic areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this SAP Certification and the courses that touches on these topics. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim. SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Positioning SAP Business Suite
Exam percentage: 100

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Sample Question And Answers

QUESTION 1
Which SAP Business Suite applications help manage supply chain processes efficiently? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. SAP Supply Chain Management (SCM)
B. SAP Transportation Management (TM)
C. SAP SuccessFactors
D. SAP Concur

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the emphasis of both GROW with SAP and RISE with SAP? Please choose the correct answer.

A. On-premise solutions
B. Minimal customization
C. Rapid implementation
D. Continuous innovation

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is a primary function of SAP Customer Relationship Management (SAP CRM) within SAP Business Suite? Please choose the correct answer.

A. Managing customer interactions, sales, and marketing activities
B. Tracking supply chain inventory levels
C. Handling payroll and workforce management
D. Processing supplier invoices

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which SAP solution is designed to manage end-to-end business processes across multiple departments? Please choose the correct answer.

A. SAP ERP
B. SAP Ariba
C. SAP Fieldglass
D. SAP BusinessObjects

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which SAP Business Suite components are critical for enterprise-wide integration?There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. SAP ERP
B. SAP SHANA
C. SAP Business Network
D. SAP Ariba
E. SAP Predictive Maintenance

Answer: A,B,C

Saturday, May 3, 2025

1Z0-1196-25 Oracle Utilities Customer to Meter and Customer Cloud Service 2025 Implementation Professional Exam

 

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 50
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: This exam has been validated against Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service.
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Utilities Customer to Meter and Customer Cloud Service 2025 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1196-25
The Oracle Utilities Customer to Meter and Customer Cloud Service 2025 Implementation Professional certification is designed for Partners, Administrators, and Business Decision Makers who are responsible for implementing, supporting and utilizing Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service for their customer and billing operations. Individuals who earn this credential are skilled at and capable of using the system to manage customer, asset, and device information; perform usage and billing calculations; manage payments; and configure numerous functional areas within the system to support a utility customer's entire lifecycle.

We recommend participation in at least one implementation, from requirements gathering through to production, prior to attempting this exam.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Oracle Utilities C2M/CCS Certification
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

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Review exam topics

Describing the Customer to Meter Product

Understand the functional footprint of the Customer to Meter product
Explain the key transactional functions that are common between the Customer to Meter application components and how shared objects are maintained

Searching and Viewing Customer and Device Related Information

Describe the key components of a screen in the Customer to Meter product
Compare the main searching capabilities that are available to business users
Configure portals to display specific zones to a business user

Maintaining Customer Information

Understand the relationship/functions of the "V" entities that capture demographic and geographic information
Configure and maintain customer (demographic and geographic) information
Illustrate how service points relate to devices and how installation details are recorded
Describe what notification preferences are used for and how they are maintained for a customer
Compare the purpose of service agreements and usage subscriptions and how they relate to usage and billing calculations

Maintaining Asset Information

Explain the role of assets, components, specifications, and dispositions
Configure asset types and manage assets

Maintaining Device Information

Explain the concept of a measuring component, and the relationship between devices and measuring componentsConfigure device types/measuring component types and manage devices/measuring components

Initiating and Managing Service Orders and Field Activities

Explain the concept of a service order (orchrestrator) activity and a field activity to support customer processes
Evaluate and extend the configuration associated with processing a servce order (orchestrator) activity from initiation through to completion

Understanding Measurements and Performing Validation/Editing/Estimation (VEE) Processing

Describe the high level process of loading measurements through to calculating usage
Compare the differences between critical validations and other validations
Configure VEE Groups/VEE Rules for processing initial measurements

Understanding Financial Transactions

Explain how account and service agreement balances are determined for a customer
Compare how various types of financial transactions are created and when they impact a customer's account balance
Implement the processes that verify the integrity of financial transactions in the system

Creating and Managing Bills

Explain the functions of a bill, bill segment, and off cycle bill generator
Compare the various ways bills and bill segments are created, managed, and corrected
Describe the key entities involved in usage calculations and their purpose
Configure usage groups/usage calculation rules to perform usage calculations
Describe how the system processes replacement meter reads to trigger a bill correction

Configuring Rates

Understand the structure of a rate schedule and the role each part plays in calculating charges
Configure rate schedules to calculate charges and illlustrate the impact of calculation rule configuration settings on resulting bill segment details

Creating and Managing Payments

Understand the differences between payment events, payment tenders, payments, and payment segments
Configure the payment-related administration objects and processes to create and manage payments from various sources

Understanding Adjustment

Explain the various ways in which an adjustment type controls aspects of an adjustment’s behavior
Compare the various ways adjustments may be created and their impact on service agreement balances

Understanding Credit and Collections Capabilities

Understand how the system creates various automated processes and their specific roles in encouraging customers to pay outstanding debt
Describe the key concepts of payment arrangements and pay plans to receive payment from customers

Starting and Stopping Service

Understand the main entities involved in starting and stopping service for a customer
Illustrate what happens when activating and stopping service agreements and the subsequent actions that may be initiated
Evaluate and extend the capabilities of agent-assisted process flows and customer service requests for processing start/stop/transfer service requests


Sample Question And Answers

QUESTION 1
[Understanding Measurements and Performing Validation/Editing/Estimation (VEE) Processing]
Usage calculations calculate service quantities (often referred to as bill determinants) for bill
calculation purposes. Which option correctly specifies the valid entity or entities related to usage calculations?

A. Usage Version Calculation Group
B. Pre-Processing Usage Calculation Group and Usage Calculation Group
C. Usage Calculation Group and Post-Processing Usage Calculation Group
D. Pre-Processing Usage Calculation Group, Usage Version Calculation Group, and Post-Processing
Usage Calculation Group
E. Usage Calculation Group

Answer: E

QUESTION 2
[Creating and Managing Bills]
A usage subscription defines which usage calculation group should be used to calculate service
quantities (often referred to as bill determinants). Which record directly initiates a corresponding usage subscription?

A. Service Agreement Type
B. Usage Request
C. Service Agreement
D. Bill Segment
E. Usage Subscription Type

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
[Maintaining Device Information]
Measuring components are single points for which data will be received and stored in the system.
Measuring components are either subtractive or consumptive. Which statement is correct?

A. A subtractive measuring component's usage is equal to the current reading minus the previous reading. A consumptive measuring component's usage is equal to its current measurement.
B. Subtractive measuring components are associated only with water service, whereas consumptive measuring components are for gas and electric services.
C. Subtractive measuring components are used to measure demand, whereas consumptive measuring components are used to measure how much was consumed since the previous reading.
D. Subtractive measuring components are associated with deductive meters, whereas consumptive measuring components are not.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
[Maintaining Device Information]
Meters are a type of device, which can be physical or virtual objects, that can produce data to be
handled by the system. Which two statements are true regarding meters?

A. One or more measuring components can be associated with a meter's device configuration.
B. Only one measuring component can be associated with a meter's device configuration.
C. Only one device configuration can be associated with a meter.
D. One or more device configurations can be associated with a meter over time.
E. A meter can only have scalar or interval measuring components associated with it.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION 5

[Creating and Managing Bills]
An issue is detected in a frozen bill segment prior to a bill being completed and sent out. If the frozen
bill segment is then cancelled and rebilled, which two statements are correct after the bill has been completed?

A. Both the originating and cancellation financial transactions are swept onto the same bill and the Show on Bill switches on the financial transactions will be deselected.
B. The bill will include both the original bill segment that was cancelled and the new billsegment details for the customer to see.
C. The bill will only include the newly created bill segment details for the customer to see and the cancelled bill segment details will be suppressed from all subsequent bills.
D. The bill will only include the newly created bill segment details for the customer to see and the cancelled bill segment details will be included in the following bill.
E. Both the originating and cancellation financial transactions are swept onto the same bill and the Show on Bill switches on the financial transactions will be selected.

Answer: A,C

Friday, May 2, 2025

JN0-1103 Design, Associate (JNCIA-Design)

 

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code: JN0-1103
Prerequisite Certification : None
Delivered by:
Exam Length: 90 minutes
Exam Type: 65 multiple-choice questions

Recertification
Juniper certifications are valid for three years. For more information, see Recertification.

The Design track enables you to demonstrate competence with Juniper Networks design principles and associated technologies. JNCIA-Design, the associate-level certification in this track, is designed for networking professionals and designers with beginner knowledge of network design, theory, and best practices. The written exam verifies your understanding of network design fundamentals.

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Juniper JN0-1103 Exams

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This track includes one certification:
JNCIA-Design: Design, Associate. For details, see the sections below.

Exam Preparation
We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren't required, and using them doesn't guarantee you'll pass the exam.

Recommended Training Juniper Networks® Design Fundamentals

Exam Resources

Industry/product knowledge
Juniper TechLibrary

Additional Preparation Juniper Learning Portal

Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIA-Design certification exam.

Exam Objective
Customer Network Design Requirements

Identify initial network design requirements for:

Juniper Networks life-cycle service approach
Proposal boundaries and considerations
Greenfield and brownfield deployments
Top-down networks
Capacity planning

Identify the roles of different Juniper products and solutions, including:

Routers
Switches
Security
WLAN
Software-defined networking (SDN)
Network management

Securing the Network

Identify security design principles for:

General security design and considerations
Securing a data center
Securing the campus WAN
Zero-trust security
Secure access service edge (SASE)

Network Management or Reliability

Identify network design considerations for business continuity, including:

High-resiliency design
Link- and device-level redundancy
Multihomed Ethernet Segment Identifier Link Aggregation Groups (ESI LAGs)
Juniper Networks SRX Firewalls redundancy
Virtual chassis
Campus redundancy best practices

Identify design considerations for network automation, including:

Benefits of network automation
Juniper automation products
Junos® XML, Representational State Transfer (REST), JSD APIs
Junos OS on-box and off-box automation

Identify design considerations for network management strategies, including:

Network management methodologies
Separation of production and management traffic
Configuration backups
Remote console access
Juniper network management strategies

Campus and Branch LAN Design

Identify considerations for a wired campus or branch LAN, including:

Campus LAN design best practices
Modular design
Subnet and VLAN design
Access control design
Ethernet VPN-Virtual Extensible LAN (EVPN-VXLAN) architecture
Campus oversubscription ratios
Campus design architectures

Identify considerations for a wireless LAN, including:

WLAN design phases
Gathering business requirements
Gathering technical requirements
Device types
Designing secondary coverage
Designing real-time location services
Access point (AP) coverage patterns
Co-channel contention
Gathering RF requirements
RF modeling

Campus and Branch WAN Design

Identify considerations for a campus or branch WAN, including:

Campus or branch WAN connectivity functions
Best practices for designing the campus or branch WAN
Campus WAN performance
Campus WAN VPN design
Campus active/active and active/passive high availability (HA)

Identify considerations for an SD-WAN, including:

SD-WAN design considerations
SD-WAN devices
Assurance models
SD-WAN intersite connectivity

Data Center Network Design

Identify considerations for general data center network, including:

Data center design best practices
Traffic patterns
Virtual chassis
Environmental considerations
Data center fabric architectures

Identify considerations for IP fabric-based data center network, including:

Benefits of IP fabric over other data center architectures
Design options with IP fabrics
Spine-and-leaf device placement recommendations
Underlay and overlay design
Routing protocol selection
IP fabric best practices
IP fabric scaling


Sample Question And Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are correct about greenfield and brownfield deployments? (Choose two.)

A. A brownfield deployment has no network environment.
B. A greenfield deployment has no network environment.
C. A greenfield deployment has a network environment and must be upgraded.
D. A brownfield deployment has a network environment and must be upgraded.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION 2
Which aspect of network design facilitates future growth and troubleshooting efforts?

A. business continuity
B. high availability
C. modularity
D. security

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are the network architect with a large banking institution with operations around the world. Any outage results in lost revenue for your company,
and may result in lost customers. Network uptime is your top priority.
In this scenario, what should be your focus?

A. return on investment
B. business continuity
C. capacity planning
D. service visualization

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which three categories should the collected data be sorted into during the data analysis phase?
(Choose three.)

A. customer requirements
B. customer data
C. Industry standards
D. personal data
E. project boundaries

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION 5
What are two characteristics of a greenfield deployment? (Choose two.)

A. A greenfield deployment means that there are fewer restrictions.
B. A greenfield deployment is more common.
C. A greenfield deployment always implies integration with other vendor products.
D. A greenfield deployment means a new deployment.

Answer: A,D

Thursday, May 1, 2025

1Z0-1054-24 Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2024 Implementation Professional Exam

 

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2024 Certified Implementation Professional

Format: Hands-on Performance Based
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: Not Applicable
Passing Score: Challenges - 75% | Multiple choice - 68%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 23A/23B/23C/23D/24A/24B.
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1054-24

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The Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2024 Implementation Professional certification is designed for SaaS Implementation Consultants or Users who implement Oracle Cloud Financials. Individuals who earn this certification are capable of configuring Enterprise and Financial Reporting Structures, Ledgers, Intercompany transactions, Period Close and Financial Reporting, and Processing Journals.

The Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2024 Implementation Professional certification is a Hands-on Performance based exam comprising of hands-on challenges and multiple choice questions. One needs to pass both sections individually to earn the credential.

You must have a valid Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger Implementation Professional Certification exam credential in order to take this Delta exam. If your credential has expired you can get up to date by successfully completing the qualifying Delta exam for free. If you are not eligible to take the Delta exam, you will need to take the Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2024 Implementation Professional Certification exam.

Check the Oracle Recertification Policy to see if you qualify.

Take recommended training

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Become a Certified Financials - General Ledger Implementer

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Configuring Enterprise and Financial Reporting Structures
Manage Chart of Accounts
Manage Account Hierarchies
Manage Accounting Calendars
Manage Chart of Accounts Security
Manage Legal Jurisdictions, Legal Authorities and Legal Entities
Manage Geographies
Manage Currencies

Processing Journals
Configure the Journal Approval setup
Explain the processes to capture and enter journals
Explain Average Daily Balance Processing

Configure and Process Intercompany
Manage Intercompany Balancing Rules and Additional Intercompany and Clearing Options
Set up Intercompany Transaction
Configure Intercompany Balancing Rules
Process Intercompany Transactions
Process intercompany reconciliations

Using Financial Reporting
Explain the Financial Reporting Center and available reporting tools
Manage Financial Reporting using Financial Reporting Web Studio
Manage Financial Reporting using Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence
Managing Financial Reporting using Smart View
Describe the General Accounting Dashboard and Work Areas
Analyze budgets versus actuals using reporting tools

Managing Period Close Components
Explain the Close Process
Manage Revaluations
Manage Translations
Manage Consolidations
Manage Reconciliations
Configure Close Monitor for efficient period close
Create Allocations and Periodic Entries

Configuring Ledgers
Manage Ledgers
Explain the General Ledger Balances Cube
Manage General Ledger Security


Sample Question And Answers

QUESTION 1
Users with the General Accountant job role have reported that they are unable to access the UK Ledger.
They require read/write access to the full ledger. The accounting configuration completed successfully.
What should you do to allow access to the ledger?

A. Assign the UK reference set to the user/role combination.
B. Assign the security context value of UK Ledger to the user/role combination.
C. Create a data access set that allows access to the UK Ledger.
D. Assign the General Accounting Manager role to those users.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Data access sets are collections of ledgers that define the data security for users who access General
Ledger. Users can only access the ledgers that are assigned to them through data access sets. To
allow users with the General Accountant job role to access the UK Ledger, you need to create a data
access set that includes the UK Ledger and assign it to the user/role combination. You also need to
specify the access privilege for the data access set, which can be Full Ledger, Both Read and Write, or
Read Only. In this case, you need to select Both Read and Write to allow read/write access to the full
ledger. Reference:
Implement General Ledger
GL_ACCESS_SET_LEDGERS
The Default Data Access Set
Overview of General Ledger Security

QUESTION 2

You notice that a lot of erroneous address data is being saved. How do you ensure that only valid addresses are entered in the system?

A. Define the Geography Validation for Country option to Error.
B. Redefine the location structure.
C. Redefine the geography hierarchy.
D. Define the Geography Validation for Country option to No Validation.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Geography validation is a feature that enables you to validate the address information entered for a
location against the geography hierarchy defined for a country. You can set the Geography Validation
for Country option to one of the following values:
No Validation: No validation is performed on the address information.
Warning: A warning message is displayed if the address information does not match the geography
hierarchy, but the user can still save the address.
Error: An error message is displayed if the address information does not match the geography
hierarchy, and the user cannot save the address until the error is corrected. To ensure that only valid
addresses are entered in the system, you should set the Geography Validation for Country option to
Error. This will prevent users from saving erroneous address data and enforce data quality and
accuracy. Reference:
Oracle Financials Cloud: Enterprise Structures with General Ledger Implementation, Chapter 2:
Define Geographies, Section: Geography Validation
Oracle Financials Cloud: Implementing Enterprise Structures and General Ledger, Chapter 2: Define
Geographies, Section: Geography Validation

QUESTION 3

You need to add new transactional attributes to the journal approval notification in an
implementation project. Which two Business Intelligence catalog objects should you copy (or customize) and edit?

A. Sub template
B. Style template
C. Layout template
D. Output type
E. Data model

Answer: C, E

Explanation:
To modify the journal approval notification, you need to copy (or customize) and edit the layout
template and the data model of the Analytics Publisher report. The layout template defines the
appearance and content of the notification, such as the text, fields, tables, and images. The data
model defines the data sources and queries that provide the data for the notification, such as the
journal attributes, amounts, and statuses. You can use Template Builder for Word to edit the layout
template and Analytics Publisher to edit the data model. You also need to download the Workflow
Notification Subtemplate, which is a common subtemplate that contains the header and footer of
the notification. You can preview the modified notification using the subtemplate and the data
model. Reference:
Modify Journal Approval Notifications with Analytics Publisher
[Creating Analytics and Reports for Financials Cloud]

QUESTION 4

You have three ledgers that use the same chart of accounts with one intercompany payable and one
intercompany receivable account. The chart of accounts also has an intercompany segment. Each
ledger has one legal entity assigned to it and each legal entity is associated with one balancing segment value.
At what level should you define the default intercompany balancing rule?

A. Ledger-level rule
B. Legal entity-level rule
C. Primary balancing segment rule
D. Chart of accounts rule

Answer: D

Explanation:
You should define the default intercompany balancing rule at the legal entity level, because each
ledger has one legal entity assigned to it and each legal entity is associated with one balancing
segment value. This way, you can specify the intercompany receivables and payables accounts for
each legal entity and ensure that the journals are balanced by legal entity or primary balancing
segment values. A ledger-level rule would apply to all legal entities in the ledger, which may not be
appropriate if they have different intercompany accounts. A primary balancing segment rule would
apply to all ledgers that share the same chart of accounts, which may not be desirable if they have
different intercompany rules. A chart of accounts rule would apply to all ledgers and legal entities
that use the same chart of accounts, which may not be feasible if they have different intercompany
segments or accounts. Reference:
Intercompany Balancing Rules, Section: Define Intercompany Balancing Rules
Overview of Intercompany Balancing Rules, Section: Define Intercompany Balancing Rules
Troubleshooting Guide For Intercompany Balancing, Section: 1. Journals and subledger accounting
entries are not being balanced for intercompany activity
Implement General Ledger, Section: Intercompany Balancing

QUESTION 5

Which three factors should you consider while specifying Intercompany System options?

A. Approvers who will approve intercompany transactions
B. Automatic or manual batch numbering and the minimum transaction amount
C. Whether to allow receivers to reject intercompany transactions
D. Whether to enforce an enterprise-wide currency or allow intercompany transactions in local currencies
E. Automatic or manual batch numbering and the maximum transaction amount

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation:
Intercompany System options are used to set up intercompany processing rules at the enterprise
level, based on your specific business needs. They help you standardize and simplify transaction
processing, minimize disputes, and reduce administrative costs. The three factors that you should
consider while specifying Intercompany System options are:
Automatic or manual batch numbering and the minimum transaction amount: These options help
you control the numbering and the size of intercompany transactions. You can choose to use system
generated or manual batch numbering, and you can specify a minimum threshold amount for
intercompany transactions to prevent immaterial transactions. To use the minimum transaction
amount option, you must also select an Intercompany currency option.
Whether to enforce an enterprise-wide currency or allow intercompany transactions in local
currencies: This option helps you manage the currency risk and the conversion rate fluctuations for
intercompany transactions. You can choose to standardize transaction processing by selecting an
Intercompany currency, which means that all intercompany transactions created in the Intercompany
module are entered in this currency. Alternatively, you can choose to allow intercompany
transactions in local currencies, which means that intercompany transactions can be entered in the
ledger currency of the sender or the receiver.
Whether to allow receivers to reject intercompany transactions: This option helps you handle the
approval and dispute resolution process for intercompany transactions. You can choose to allow
receivers to reject intercompany transactions if they disagree with the senders information, such as
the amount, the account, or the date. If you enable this option, you must also specify the rejection
reason and the notification details for the sender.
Reference:
Intercompany System Options
Implementing Enterprise Structures and General Ledger
Implement General Ledger