Thursday, October 22, 2020

HPE6-A66 Aruba Certified Design Associate Exam

 

Exam ID HPE6-A66
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 67%
Delivery languages Latin American Spanish, Japanese, English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Aruba Design Fundamentals, Rev. 19.41

Additional study materials

Aruba Certified Design Associate Study Guide

Register for this Exam
You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process.

Exam description
This exam validates you have a fundamental knowledge of an Aruba network design and know the Aruba product lines to help you design the network with the assistance of a senior designer. Candidate should know how to read a customer request and extract the information needed for a wired or wireless network. Candidate should know how to use VRF and IRIS.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Candidates are IT Associates with minimal Aruba Networking knowledge. It is suggested all candidates take the course for this exam.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:

Multiple choice (multiple responses), scenario based
Multiple choice (single response), scenario based
Multiple choice (multiple responses)
Multiple choice (single response)

Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:

Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

15% Gather and analyze data, and document customer requirements
Given an outline of a customer's needs for a simple campus environment determine the information required to create a solution

25%  Evaluate the requirements, and select the appropriate Aruba solution for the design
Given a scenario, evaluate the customer requirements for a simple campus environment identify gaps per a gap analysis, and select components based on the analysis results.
Given a scenario, translate the business needs of a simple campus environment into technical customer requirements.

23% Plan and design an Aruba solution per customer requirements

Given a scenario, select the appropriate products based on the customer's technical requirements for a simple campus environment
Given the customer requirements for a single-site campus environment design the high-level Aruba solution
Given a customer scenario, explain how a specific technology or solution would meet the customer's requirements

25% Produce a detailed design specification document.
Given a customer scenario for a simple campus environment, choose the appropriate components that should be included in the BOM.
Given the customer requirements for a simple site environment determine the component details and document the high-level design.
Given a customer scenario of a simple site environment, design and document the logical and physical network solutions.
Given the customer scenario and service level agreements, document the licensing and maintenance requirements.

12% Recommend the solution to the customer.
Given the customer's requirements, explain and justify the recommended solution.

QUESTION 1
A customer has phones used as wireless Voice over IP (VoIP) devices.
Which is one implication for the design?

A. Plan policies for the phone role on MCs to give the phones a high QoS priority.
B. Ensure a -75 GHz signal in both the 2.4GHz band and the 5GHz band across the entire site.
C. Ensure that APs connect on Smart Rate ports to support the high bandwidth demands of the phones.
D. Apply a bandwidth contract to the phone VLAN to limit broadcast and multicast traffic.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is one reason to deploy an Aruba 8320 switch when compared to an Aruba 5400R switch?

A. to support cloud-based management and guest services through Aruba Central integration
B. to obtain a great number of options for types of ports, including PoE and non-PoE
C. to enhance network monitoring and analytics
D. to support Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A hospital needs a wireless solution which will provide guest access for patients and visitors, as well as for
medical staff. In addition to laptops and tablets, staff have wireless voice communicator devices. Some medical equipment also connects wirelessly.
How can the network architect help to ensure that patient and visitor internet use does not interfere with more vital hospital applications?

A. Deploy IntroSpect to monitor patient and visitor traffic.
B. Plan a bandwidth contract for the guest role in the MC firewall.
C. Deploy dedicated Air Monitors (AMs) at about one-fourth the density of APs.
D. Ensure that the guest SSID has a password associated with it.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An architect has recommended the deployment or RAPs at user home offices to provide access to the corporate LAN.
How should the architect plan the SSID for the RAPs?

A. Same SSID and security settings as the corporate SSID
B. any name for the SSID with MAC-Authentication
C. any name for the SSID, which would be open; VIA is used for security
D. same name used for the corporate SSID, but always with WPA2-Personal security

Correct Answer: A

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NS0-161 NetApp Certified Data Administrator-ONTAP Exam

 

NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP
You have proven skills in performing in-depth support, administrative functions, and performance management for NetApp® data storage controllers running the ONTAP® operating system in NFS and Windows® (CIFS) multiprotocol environments. You understand how to implement high-availability controller configurations, and have detailed knowledge of technologies used to manage and protect mission-critical data.

NCDA logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP (NS0-161) exam.
Register now for your exam

Prepare for your exam

NS0-161 NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP
Candidates for NCDA (NetApp Certified Data Administrator) certification should have at least six to 12 months of field experience implementing and administering NetApp® data storage solutions in multiprotocol environments. In addition, candidates taking the NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP exam should know how to implement HA controller configurations, SyncMirror® software for rapid data recovery, or ONTAP® solutions with either single- or multi-node configurations.

Take your exam
The NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP (NS0-161) exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.

Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days after you complete your exam.

The NCDA ONTAP (NS0-161) exam includes the following topics:

Storage Platforms
Describe knowledge of physical storage systems.
Describe software-defined on-premises or cloud storage systems.
Describe how to upgrade or scale ONTAP clusters.

Core ONTAP
Describe ONTAP system management.
Describe high availability concepts.
Describe how to manage Storage Virtual Machines (SVM).

Logical Storage
Describe how to use logical storage features.
Describe NetApp storage efficiency features.
Describe NetApp ONTAP Data Fabric solutions.

Networking
Describe how to use network components.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot network components.

SAN Solutions and Connectivity
Describe how to use SAN solutions.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot SAN solutions.

NAS Solutions
Describe how to use NAS solutions.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot NAS solutions.

Data Protection
Describe how to use ONTAP data protection solutions.
Describe how to use SnapMirror.
Identify MetroCluster concepts.

Security
Describe protocol security.
Describe security hardening.
Describe inflight or at rest encryption.
Identify SnapLock concepts.

Performance
Demonstrate knowledge of how to administer ONTAP performance.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot storage system performance.

QUESTION 1
What is the minimum number of disks required to create a RAID-DP data aggregate?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 5

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In an aggregate with only thick-provisioned volumes, you need to split a FlexClone volume from its parent volume. There are other volumes in the aggregate.
In this scenario, how much space must be available within the containing aggregate?

A. You need enough space for twice the size of the parent volume.
B. The split FlexClone volume must be created in a new aggregate.
C. You need enough space for half the size of the parent volume.
D. You need to double the space in the existing aggregate.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a 4-node cluster with 2x AFF A300 and 2x FAS8200 controllers. One of the AFF A300 controllers
has a 50 TB FlexVol volume that needs an immediate read-write copy for standalone testing on one of the FAS8200 controllers.
Which two commands combined accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. volume rehost
B. volume clone create
C. volume move
D. volume clone split

Correct Answer: B,D

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Friday, October 2, 2020

CIPM Certified Information Privacy Manager Exam

 

Operationalizing Privacy – Turning Policies into Programs
Make data privacy regulations work for your organization by understanding how to implement them in day-to-day operations. Learn to create a company vision, structure a data protection team, develop and implement system frameworks, communicate to stakeholders, measure performance and more.

How to create a company vision
How to structure the privacy team
How to develop and implement a privacy program framework
How to communicate to stakeholders
How to measure performance
The privacy program operational life cycle

The CIPM body of knowledge outlines all the concepts and topics that you need to know to become certified. The exam blueprint gives you an idea of how many questions from each topic area you can expect on the exam. These documents, as well as additional certification resources and helpful links, can be found here.

We strongly encourage all potential test takers to read our 2020 Certification Candidate Handbook before testing for details on our testing policies and procedures.

How to Prepare
Earning respected credentials requires a rigorous certification process, which includes passing demanding exams. IAPP exams have a reputation for being difficult to pass on the first try. We strongly recommend careful preparation, even for degreed professionals who have passed other certification tests.

Preparation makes all the difference. In general, we recommend that you train and study for a minimum of 30 hours.

We want you to succeed. Please take advantage of IAPP resources to get through exams with as little anxiety as possible.

Tips for effective studying
Consider enrolling in an IAPP training class. With multiple in-person, live online and online options, IAPP trainings are created from the same topic outline from which exam questions are drawn. PLEASE NOTE that completing a training course does not guarantee passing an exam. Additional preparation is essential, so:

Self-assess—Each IAPP exam comes with two tools for determining how ready you are:

The body of knowledge is an outline of the information covered in the exam. Use it to identify topics you are and are not familiar with.
The exam blueprint tells you how many questions to expect on each topic. Use it to map out a study strategy—allowing more time for topics with many questions, for example.

Use your textbook properly—Textbooks are included with purchase of in-person, live online and online training, and are also sold separately through the IAPP store. Start by reading the table of contents. Note which topics are new to you. That will give you a feel for how much study and review time you need. When you start reading:

Highlight important points in each chapter
Copy out key passages; it will help you remember them
Review each chapter to make sure you’ve captured the key points before moving on

Create flash cards—As you read your textbook, articles, web pages, etc., copy new terms onto notecards. Write their definitions on the other side. Quiz yourself. Use the IAPP’s glossary of privacy terms to look up unfamiliar terms and make flash cards of them, also.

Form a study group—Discussing the material with your coworkers and colleagues is a great way to remember material and understand it more deeply.

Learn in context—It’s easier and more interesting to learn a subject you’re going to use in real life. IAPP publications show how privacy affects our lives and businesses:
Privacy Perspectives
The Privacy Advisor
Privacy Tracker
Privacy Tech
DPO Confessional

Get familiar with privacy news and issues by subscribing to the Daily Dashboard and the IAPP’s curated regional news digests:
Daily Dashboard
Canada Dashboard Digest
Asia-Pacific Dashboard Digest
Latin America Dashboard Digest
Europe Data Protection Digest
U.S. Privacy Digest

Explore our information-packed Resource Center, participate in educational web conferences and listen to The Privacy Advisor Podcast.

Also, compare what’s going on in privacy today with your job. What privacy issues could affect your work and career?
Use questions to find answers­—Utilize sample questions to help you review what you’ve studied and identify weak areas. Re-read notes and chapters on those subjects. Ask your study partners questions. Search for articles that approach the subject from different directions.

QUESTION 1
In addition to regulatory requirements and business practices, what important factors must a global privacy strategy consider?

A. Monetary exchange
B. Geographic features
C. Political history
D. Cultural norms

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How are individual program needs and specific organizational goals identified in privacy framework development?

A. By employing metrics to align privacy protection with objectives
B. Through conversations with the privacy team
C. By employing an industry-standard needs analysis
D. Through creation of the business case

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In privacy protection, what is a “covered entity”?

A. Personal data collected by a privacy organization
B. An organization subject to the privacy provisions of HIPAA
C. A privacy office or team fully responsible for protecting personal information
D. Hidden gaps in privacy protection that may go unnoticed without expert analysis

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an example of Privacy by Design (PbD)?

A. A company hires a professional to structure a privacy program that anticipates the increasing demands of new laws.
B. The human resources group develops a training program from employees to become certified in privacy policy.
C. A labor union insists that the details of employers’ data protection methods be documented in a new contract.
D. The information technology group uses privacy considerations to inform the development of new networking software.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the key factor that lays the foundation for all other elements of a privacy program?

A. The applicable privacy regulations
B. The structure of a privacy team
C. A privacy mission statement
D. A responsible internal stakeholder

Correct Answer: A

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Monday, September 7, 2020

HPE0-A127P Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Practical Exam

 

Exam ID HPE0-A127P
Exam type Performance based
Exam duration 8 hours
Passing score 75%
Delivery languages English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Aruba Advanced ClearPass Troubleshooting and Solutions, Rev. 20.41
Aruba ClearPass Essentials, Rev. 20.11

Register for this Exam
You need an HPE Learner ID and an Aruba Learning Management System username and password.

The HPE6-A81 ACCX Written Exam is required to be passed before the practical exam. Once the written is passed, you will only have 18 months to pass the ACCX Practical Exam. Candidates who do not pass the ACCX Practical Exam within 18 months will have to retake the current ACCX Written Exam. HPE recommends that you register for the ACCX Practical Exam within 12 months of passing the written exam to ensure that you pass in the allotted 18-month timeframe.

No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process.

Exam description
The Aruba Certified ClearPass Expert Practical Exam tests your skills on ClearPass design and configuration of authentication services. The exam scenario tests many aspects that are common to enterprise network deployments, and focuses on configuration elements that are considered of significance for larger enterprise environments.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this certification are networking IT professionals with a minimum of three to five years experience in designing and integrating complex enterprise-level mobile first networks.

Exam contents
Here are types of questions to expect:

Other - This is a scenario based practical exam.

Advice to help you take this exam
• Complete the recommended training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
• Candidates are expected to follow best practices during configuration, as per the material covered in the ClearPass Essentials 6.7 and ClearPass Advanced labs 6.5 and 6.7 and Aruba Mobility serious courses.
• Familiarity with the ClearPass technotes (available on the support website) is highly suggested. A selection of technotes and reference guides will be available to the candidates during the exam.
• For the exam, the candidate will be expected to configure the following equipment with code versions listed:
• ClearPass 6.8
• Aruba VMC 8.3
• Aruba IAP 8.3
• Cisco WLC 8.0
• Cisco 3560 Switch IPSERVICES 15.0(2) SE5
• Partial configurations will be provided for the Aruba VMC, Aruba Instant, Cisco WLC and the Cisco switches. However, candidates may have to configure the devices further to complete the objectives of the exam. In addition, there might be other equipment present such as wired voice phones and Windows 10 laptops. The wired voice phones will be pre-configured for the candidate. The candidate is expected to know how to use Windows 10 laptops as client devices with ClearPass.

Objectives

25% ClearPass Design and Basic Setup
The most significant step towards completing the exam is to ensure that the design of the ClearPass servers and the basic set up of the servers is in line with the customers’ requirements (as per the exam scenario).
This includes understanding ClearPass clustering, certificates, integration with external servers and network devices.
Redundancy is also a major component of the ACCX exam.

51% Aruba Controller/IAP Employee, Guest, NAC and BYOD

The exam will test candidates on their understanding of Microsoft Active Directory integration, machine authentication, RADIUS accounting, CoA, posture checks, guest web login, self-registration, sponsor approval, MAC caching and device onboarding.
Candidates should understand the requirements for successfully deploying these features, including any configuration necessary on ClearPass, the Aruba controller or Instant AP.
This exam will test candidates on MDM and SQL server integration with ClearPass. However, candidates will not be expected to configure an MDM server or SQL server in the exam.
In addition, the exam will expect candidates to understand how Aruba devices interact with redundant ClearPass servers.

16% Cisco Wired and WLAN Controller- Employee and Guest
This exam tests candidates on the integration of Cisco wireless controllers with ClearPass, including Microsoft Active Directory integration, machine authentication, RADIUS accounting and CoA, guest web login, self-registration and sponsor approval.
Candidates should understand the requirements for successfully deploying these features including any configuration on ClearPass or the Cisco controller.
The exam tests candidates on their understanding of Wired 802.1X and MAC authentication integration with Cisco Switches and ClearPass.
This exam expects candidates to have a comprehensive understanding of device profiling, wired integration requirements and how Cisco devices interact with redundant ClearPass servers.

8% Admin Accessing and Reporting
An understanding of ClearPass as a management authentication server for network devices.
ClearPass Policy Manager and Guest management authentication are required.
In addition, an understanding of how to use the ClearPass Insight tool is expected.

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Wednesday, September 2, 2020

300-430 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks Exam

 

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of wireless network implementation, including:

FlexConnect
QoS
Multicast
Advanced location services
Security for client connectivity
Monitoring
Device hardening

Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks v1.0 (ENWLSI 300-430) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Enterprise and Cisco Certified Specialist - Enterprise Wireless Implementation certifications. This exam certifies a candidate's knowledge of wireless network implementation including FlexConnect, QoS, Multicast, advanced location services, security for client connectivity, monitoring and device hardening. The course, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Deploy FlexConnect components such as switching and operating modes
1.2 Deploy FlexConnect capabilities
1.2.a FlexConnect groups and roaming
1.2.b Split tunneling and fault tolerance
1.2.c VLAN-based central switching and Flex ACL
1.2.d Smart AP image upgrade
1.3 Implement Office Extend

2.1 Implement QoS schemes based on requirements including wired to wireless mapping
2.2 Implement QoS for wireless clients
2.3 Implement AVC including Fastlane (only on WLC)
3.1 Implement multicast components
3.2 Describe how multicast can affect wireless networks
3.3 Implement multicast on a WLAN
3.4 Implement mDNS
3.5 Implement Multicast Direct

4.1 Deploy MSE and CMX on a wireless network
4.2 Implement location services
4.2.a client tracking
4.2.b RFID tags (tracking only)
4.2.c Interferers
4.2.d Rogue APs
4.2.e Clients

5.1 Implement CMX components
5.1.a Detect and locate
5.1.b Analytics
5.1.c Presence services
5.2 Implement location-aware guest services using custom portal and Facebook Wi-Fi
5.3 Troubleshoot location accuracy using Cisco Hyperlocation
5.4 Troubleshoot CMX high availability
5.5 Implement wIPS using MSE

6.1 Configure client profiling on WLC and ISE
6.2 Implement BYOD and guest
6.2.a CWA using ISE (including self-registration portal)
6.2.b LWA using ISE or WLC
6.2.c Native supplicant provisioning using ISE
6.2.d Certificate provisioning on the controller
6.3 Implement 802.1X and AAA on different wireless architectures and ISE
6.4 Implement Identity-Based Networking on different wireless architectures (VLANs, QoS, ACLs)

7.1 Utilize reports on PI and Cisco DNA center
7.2 Manage alarms and rogues (APs and clients)
7.2.a WLC
7.2.b PI
7.2.c Cisco DNA center
7.3 Manage RF interferers
7.3.a WLC
7.3.b PI
7.3.c Cisco DNA center
7.4 Troubleshoot client connectivity
7.4.a WLC
7.4.b ISE
7.4.c PI
7.4.d Cisco DNA center

8.1 Implement device access controls (including RADIUS and TACACS+)
8.2 Implement access point authentication (including 802.1X)
8.3 Implement CPU ACLs on the controller

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Monday, August 31, 2020

CRT-450 Salesforce Certified Platform Developer I (SU18) Exam

 

ABOUT THE EXAM
Candidates should have experience developing and deploying business logic and user interfaces using the programmatic capabilities of the Lightning Platform.

Summer '20 Release
Congratulations on taking the next step to prepare for your Salesforce Platform Developer I credential. This exam guide has the information you need to help you study and prepare for your exam. Let’s get started!

Contents
About the Salesforce Platform Developer I Credential
Audience Description: Salesforce Platform Developer I
Purpose of this Exam Guide
About the Exam
Recommended Training and References
Exam Outline
Maintaining Your Certification
About the Salesforce Platform Developer I Credential
The Salesforce Platform Developer I credential is intended for individuals who have knowledge, skills, and experience in building custom applications on the Lightning Platform.

This credential encompasses the fundamental programmatic capabilities of the Lightning Platform to develop custom business logic and interfaces to extend Salesforce using Apex, Visualforce, and basic Lightning Components. To achieve this credential, a candidate must successfully pass the Salesforce Platform Developer I exam. This exam is also a prerequisite to the Salesforce Platform Developer II Multiple Choice exam.

Audience Description: Salesforce Platform Developer I
The Salesforce Platform Developer I exam is intended for an individual who has experience developing and deploying basic business logic and user interfaces using the programmatic capabilities of the Lightning Platform, including practical application of the skills and concepts noted in the exam objectives below.

The Salesforce Platform Developer I generally has one to two years of experience as a developer and at least six months of experience on the Lightning Platform and has invested time in studying the resources listed in this exam guide.

The Salesforce Platform Developer I candidate has the experience, skills, and knowledge outlined below:
Has experience with object-oriented languages such as Apex, Java, JavaScript, C#, and Ruby.
Has experience with data-driven applications and relational databases.
Has experience with Model View Controller (MVC) architecture and component-based architecture.
Knows the capabilities of the core objects in the Salesforce schema.
Knows the capabilities and use cases for formula fields and roll-up summary fields.
Is familiar with and able to leverage relevant declarative capabilities of the platform, where appropriate.
Knows when to use declarative vs. programmatic methods.
Knows when to use the Lightning Process Builder vs. an Apex trigger.
Is familiar with the basics of the Lightning framework.
Can use the fundamental programmatic capabilities of the Lightning Platform to develop custom interfaces to extend Salesforce capabilities and develop custom business logic.
Can extend the Lightning Platform using Apex, Visualforce, and basic Lightning Components.
Is familiar with the development lifecycle from development to testing, and has knowledge of the available environments.

A candidate for this exam is not expected to administer any standard Salesforce applications, develop mobile apps, develop and publish managed products on the AppExchange, perform tuning, or design integrations such as callouts, APIs, and email services.

Purpose of this Exam Guide
This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to successfully complete the Salesforce Platform Developer I exam. This guide provides information about the target audience for the certification exam, recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score. Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.

About the Exam
Read on for details about the Salesforce Platform Developer I exam:

Content: 60 multiple-choice/multiple-select questions and 5 non-scored questions
Time allotted to complete the exam: 105 minutes
Passing score: 65%
Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
Prerequisite: None; course attendance highly recommended

Recommended Training and References
As preparation for this exam, we recommend a combination of hands-on experience, training course completion, Trailhead trails, and self-study in the areas listed in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.

The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:
Trail: Study for the Platform Developer I Exam
Trailmix: Prepare for Your Salesforce Platform Developer I Credential
Superbadge: Apex Specialist

To enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online training from your Salesforce application, click the Help & Training link in the upper right corner of the screen (requires login) and search for the desired courses. Non-Salesforce customers can register for instructor-led courses here.

Instructor-Led Training recommended for this exam:
Programmatic Development Using Apex and Visualforce in Lightning Experience (DEX 450)
Certification Preparation for Platform Developer I (CRT 450)

Additional Resources:
Apex Developer Guide
Lightning Web Components Developer Guide
Lightning Aura Components Developer Guide
Visualforce Developer Guide
Platform Events Developer Guide
Salesforce Developer Limits and Allocations Quick Reference
SOQL and SOSL Reference

To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides, search for the topics listed in the Exam Outline section of this guide and study the information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides can also be accessed through Help & Training.

Exam Outline
The Salesforce Platform Developer I exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform and have demonstrated the application of each of the features/functions below.

Exam Outline
The Salesforce Platform Developer I exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform and have demonstrated the application of each of the features/functions below.

Salesforce Fundamentals: 7%
Describe the considerations when developing in a multi-tenant environment.
Understand design frameworks, such as MVC architecture and Aura Framework, and how to build applications using both declarative and programmatic tools.
Given a scenario, identify common use cases for declarative versus programmatic customizations.

Data Modeling and Management: 13%
Given a set of requirements, determine, create, and access the appropriate data model including objects, fields, and relationships.
Describe the capabilities of the various relationship types and custom IDs and the implications of each on record access and development.
Describe the options for and considerations when importing and exporting data into development environments.
Describe the capabilities and use cases for formula fields and roll-up summary fields.

Process Automation and Logic: 38%
Describe the capabilities of the declarative process automation features.
Declare variables, constants, methods, and use modifiers and interfaces in Apex.
Given a scenario, use and apply Apex control flow statements.
Given a scenario, write Apex classes and use Apex interfaces.
Given a scenario, write SOSL, SOQL, and DML statements in Apex.
Given a use case, write Apex classes and triggers following best practices.
Given a scenario, identify the implications of governor limits on Apex transactions.
Describe the relationship between Apex transactions, the save order of execution, and the potential for recursion and/or cascading.
Implement exception handling in Apex, including custom exceptions as needed.
Use programmatic techniques to prevent security vulnerabilities.
Given a scenario, use declarative functionality and Apex together to automate business logic.
Given a scenario, identify the appropriate publish/subscribe logic for platform events.

User Interface: 25%
Given a scenario, display or modify Salesforce data using a Visualforce page and the appropriate controllers or extensions as needed.
Describe the types of web content that can be incorporated into Visualforce pages.
Incorporate Visualforce pages into Lightning Platform applications.
Describe the Lightning Component framework and its benefits.
Describe the types of content that can be contained in a Lightning web component.
Given a scenario, prevent user interface and data access security vulnerabilities.
Given a scenario, display and use a custom user interface components, including Lightning Components, Visual Flow, and Visualforce.
Describe the use cases for Lightning component events and application events.
Given a user interface requirement, describe interactions between Apex and various types of page components, including Lightning Components, Visual Flow, Next Best Actions, etc.

Testing, Debugging, and Deployment: 17%
Write and execute tests for triggers, controllers, classes, flows, and processes using various sources of test data.
Describe the use cases for invoking anonymous code and the differences between invoking Apex in execute anonymous vs. unit tests.
Describe the Salesforce Developer tools such as Salesforce DX, Salesforce CLI, and Developer Console, and when to use them.
Describe how to approach debugging system issues and monitoring flows, processes, and asynchronous and batch jobs, etc.
Describe the environments, requirements, and process for deploying code and associated configurations.

Maintaining Your Salesforce Certification
One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being up-to-date on new product releases (updates). As such, you will be required to complete the Platform Developer I certification maintenance modules on Trailhead once per year.

Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! If you do not complete all maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire.

Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
Overall Maintenance Requirements
Maintenance Exam Due Dates
Verify Your Certification Status
Certification Expiration Details

QUESTION 1
Your organization’s corporate website must be available on www.acme.com and acme.com.
How should you configure Amazon Route 53 to meet this requirement?

A. Configure acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB.
B. Configure acme.com with an A record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
C. Configure acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
D. Configure acme.com using a second ALIAS record with the ELB target. www.acme.com using a PTR record with the acme.com record target.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are building an application in AWS that requires Amazon Elastic MapReduce (Amazon EMR). The
application needs to resolve hostnames in your internal, on-premises Active Directory domain. You update
your DHCP Options Set in the VPC to point to a pair of Active Directory integrated DNS servers running in your VPC.
Which action is required to support a successful Amazon EMR cluster launch?

A. Add a conditional forwarder to the Amazon-provided DNS server.
B. Enable seamless domain join for the Amazon EMR cluster.
C. Launch an AD connector for the internal domain.
D. Configure an Amazon Route 53 private zone for the EMR cluster.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a three-tier web application with separate subnets for Web, Applications, and Database tiers. Your
CISO suspects your application will be the target of malicious activity. You are tasked with notifying the
security team in the event your application is port scanned by external systems.
Which two AWS Services cloud you leverage to build an automated notification system? (Choose two.)

A. Internet gateway
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. Lambda
E. AWS Inspector

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all
the application instances from the Internet and from an on-premises network. The on-premises network is
connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link.
How should you design routing to meet these requirements?

A. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: one to the Internet via an IGW, the other to the onpremises network via the VGW. Use this routing table across all subnets in your VPC.
B. Configure two routing tables: one that has a default route via the IGW, and another that has a default route via the VGW. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.
C. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnet.
D. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate specific routes for the onpremises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with
all VPC subnets.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your company decides to use Amazon S3 to augment its on-premises data store. Instead of using the
company’s highly controlled, on-premises Internet gateway, a Direct Connect connection is ordered to provide
high bandwidth, low latency access to S3. Since the company does not own a publically routable IPv4 address
block, a request was made to AWS for an AWS-owned address for a Public Virtual Interface (VIF).
The security team is calling this new connection a “backdoor”, and you have been asked to clarify the risk to the company.
Which concern from the security team is valid and should be addressed?

A. AWS advertises its aggregate routes to the Internet allowing anyone on the Internet to reach the router.
B. Direct Connect customers with a Public VIF in the same region could directly reach the router.
C. EC2 instances in the same region with access to the Internet could directly reach the router.
D. The S3 service could reach the router through a pre-configured VPC Endpoint.

Correct Answer: A


 

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Sunday, August 30, 2020

300-715 Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (300-715 SISE)

 

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine, including:
Architecture and deployment
Policy enforcement
Web Auth and guest services
Profiler
BYOD
Endpoint compliance
Network access device administration

Exam Description
The Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine v1.0 (SISE 300-715) exam is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, and Cisco Certified Specialist - Security Identity Management Implementation certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine, including architecture and deployment, policy enforcement, Web Auth and guest services, profiler, BYOD, endpoint compliance, and network access device administration. The course, Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Configure personas
1.2 Describe deployment options
2.1 Configure native AD and LDAP
2.2 Describe identity store options
2.3.a LDAP
2.3.b AD
2.3.c PKI
2.3.d OTP
2.3.e Smart Card
2.3.f Local

2.3 Configure wired/wireless 802.1X network access

2.4 Configure 802.1X phasing deployment

2.5.a Monitor mode
2.5.b Low impact
2.5.c Closed mode

2.5 Configure network access devices

2.6 Implement MAB

2.7 Configure Cisco TrustSec

2.8 Configure policies including authentication and authorization profiles

3.1 Configure web authentication

3.2 Configure guest access services

3.3 Configure sponsor and guest portals

4.1 Implement profiler services

4.2 Implement probes

4.3 Implement CoA

4.4 Configure endpoint identity management

5.1 Describe Cisco BYOD functionality

5.1.a Use cases and requirements
5.1.b Solution components
5.1.c BYOD flow

5.2 Configure BYOD device on-boarding using internal CA with Cisco switches and Cisco wireless LAN controllers

5.3 Configure certificates for BYOD

5.4 Configure blacklist/whitelist

6.1 Describe endpoint compliance, posture services, and client provisioning

6.2 Configure posture conditions and policy, and client provisioning

6.3 Configure the compliance module

6.4 Configure Cisco ISE posture agents and operational modes

6.5 Describe supplicant, supplicant options, authenticator, and server

7.1 Compare AAA protocols

7.2 Configure TACACS+ device administration and command authorization
 

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Wednesday, July 8, 2020

ITIL-4-FOUNDATION ITILFND V4 Foundation Exam

Introduction
The ITIL 4 Foundation qualification is intended to introduce candidates to the management of modern IT-enabled services, to provide them with an understanding of the common language and key concepts, and to show them how they can improve their work and the work of their organization with ITIL 4 guidance. Furthermore, the qualification will provide the candidate with an understanding of the ITIL 4 service management framework and how it has evolved to adopt modern technologies and ways of working.
The ITIL 4 Foundation examination is intended to assess whether the candidate can demonstrate sufficient recall and understanding of the ITIL 4 service management framework, as described in the syllabus below, to be awarded the ITIL 4 Foundation qualification. The ITIL 4 Foundation qualification is a prerequisite for the ITIL 4 higher level qualifications, which assess the candidate’s ability to apply their understanding of the relevant parts of the ITIL framework in context.

ITIL® 4 Foundation Exam voucher
The ITIL 4 Foundation Exam voucher is for a PeopleCert take anywhere online exam. This voucher allows you to sit for the online ITIL 4 Foundation certification exam.

When you are ready, you redeem the voucher to take the exam online using your computer (this is done online). Directions for redeeming the voucher are provided with the voucher. PeopleCert exams are live proctored using your web cam. After you have registered, and redeemed the voucher, you will need to make an appointment with PeopleCert to take the exam.

IMPORTANT: This exam voucher is for an online exam, not for sitting the exam at a local test center.
The Take2 re-sit option

The Take2 re-sit option is now available to you when ordering your exam vouchers! The Take2 re-sit exam option is a new program for those who want a little insurance heading into their exam session. In the event that your first attempt is unsuccessful, you will receive a Take2 Re-sit Option exam voucher from PeopleCert for your online proctored, take anywhere retake exam. This option MUST be purchased in conjunction with an exam voucher. With the Take2 re-sit option, you are buying:

Peace of mind, gives you the chance to retake a demanding exam
Plenty of time to prepare, gives you up to 6 months from the date of the initial exam, to ensure that you have all the time you need to get ready
Convenience, lets you schedule the re-sit exam online, when it best suits you and you take the exam online from the comfort of your home or office

Please note, the Take2 re-sit option is not transferable, non-refundable, and cannot be redeemed for cash or credit, even if it is not used.

Scheduling Your Exam
When you are ready, you register as a student on the PeopleCert site and then you login and redeem the voucher to take the exam on your computer (this is done online). Directions for registering as a student and redeeming the voucher are provided with the voucher code. PeopleCert exams are live proctored using your web cam. After you have registered and redeemed the voucher, you will need to make an appointment with PeopleCert to take the exam.

Prerequisites for the ITIL 4 Foundation Exam
None. Familiarity with IT terminology and IT-related work experience are highly recommended as is ITIL 4 Foundation training. For more information on available ITIL 4 Foundation training, see the PassionIT Group ITIL 4 Foundation Training page. For more information on available training aids to prepare for the exam, see the PassionIT Group Book Catalog.

Note: Exam orders may take up to one business day to process. In the event that you have not received your Exam voucher after one business day, check your email spam and junk folders to ensure that the email has not been redirected there. If your Exam voucher has not arrived within one business day, please contact us and let us know.

QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving services?

A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?

A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a standard change?

A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?

A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and implementation

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication of service requests and incidents?

A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management

Answer: B
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Saturday, July 4, 2020

C1000-088 IBM Spectrum Storage Solution Architect V2 Exam

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 34
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

The IBM Spectrum Storage Solution Architecture V2 exam tests a candidate on designing, planning and creating an architecture with IBM Spectrum Storage solutions.

IBM Spectrum Storage Solution Architect V2 100%

SECTION 1: Plan for an IBM Spectrum Storage Solution Design
Evaluate the customer’s environment for potential opportunities for improvement
Translate functional requirements into the respective architecture
Identify methods by which customers can reduce the complexity of data migration
Articulate how proposed solutions interact with the existing customer environment
Evaluate service level requirements to meet the cost and performance goals for the environment: Hybrid Multicloud, Storage AI & Big Data, Modern Data Protection and Cyber Resiliency
Evaluate and reconcile between various product offerings to construct an appropriate solution that will satisfy customer requirements: Hybrid Multicloud, Storage AI & Big Data, Modern Data Protection and Cyber Resiliency
Determine characteristics of storage workloads
Utilize accepted tools and methodologies to determine appropriate architecture.
For a given environment, identify gaps where Spectrum Storage solutions will solve key technology problems
Explain IBM Storage Suite for IBM Cloud Paks
Determine if Spectrum Suite is appropriate for a scenario.
Explain the licensing model of Storage Utility Offering

SECTION 2: Features and Capabilities of IBM Spectrum Storage Products
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of Spectrum Control.
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of the IBM Spectrum Scale/ESS solution
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Spectrum Archive
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Spectrum Virtualize.
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Cloud Object Storage
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Spectrum Copy Services Manager
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Spectrum Copy Services Manager
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM ESS Integrated
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Spectrum Protect
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Spectrum Protect Plus
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Spectrum Discover
Articulate the core functions and deployment architecture of IBM Storage Insights

SECTION 3: Solving Client Challenges with Spectrum Solutions / Use Cases
Solve Client Challenges with Hybrid Multicloud
Solve Client Challenges with Storage AI & Big Data
Solve Client Challenges with Modern Data Protection and Cyber Resiliency
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Monday, June 29, 2020

C1000-080 IBM Business Automation Workflow v19 Application Development using Integration Designer Exam

Number of questions: 67
Number of questions to pass: 48
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

This intermediate level certification is intended for Application Developers responsible for the development of integration services for business process applications. This certification focuses on application development with IBM Integration Designer V19.0 for deployment on IBM Business Automation Workflow V19.0.

This exam does not include IBM Process Designer or Process and Case Modeling.

This exam consists of eight sections described below. For more detail, please see the study guide on the Exam Preparation tab.

Installation and Configuration 4%
Install and update the IBM Integration Designer (IID)
Install and configure a Unit Test Environment (UTE)

Service Component Architecture (SCA) programming model and solution design 22%
Design and use Service Component Architecture (SCA)
Design and use business objects
Demonstrate an understanding of Service Component Architecture (SCA)
Effectively organize a solution into modules, mediation modules, and libraries taking into consideration component reuse, and application maintainability
Determine the appropriate use of macroflows (long-running processes), microflows (short-running processes), and mediations
Effectively use quality of service (QoS) qualifiers
Demonstrate understanding of and apply performance considerations for business integration solutions, including long-running processes
Configure dynamic invocation using Gateway patterns
Monitor Business Processing using Dynamic Event Framework (DEF) and audit logging

BPEL Development 15%
Design and implement Business Process Execution Language (BPEL) processes using the business process editor
Use correlation sets in the BPEL process
Demonstrate understanding of transaction behavior
Implement custom logic using the visual snippet editor and Java code
Implement error handling and compensation within a business process
Demonstrate an understanding of working with Human tasks
Create new versions for the BPEL process

Mediation Development 15%
Describe the Service Message Object (SMO)
Implement fault handling in mediation modules
Develop mediation flows
Use mediation primitives and subflows in mediation flows
Transform data using maps (XSLT and Business Object)
Use dynamic service routing through a Dynamic Endpoint Selection
Design a parallel flow (fan in/fan out)

Workflow Center Repository 11%
Working with the Workflow Center Perspective
Import Process Application and Toolkits
Manage artifacts in the repository (associating, disassociating and merging)
Implement advanced integration service (emulating)
Understand design considerations when working with Workflow Center Repository integration modules

Connectivity and Integration 13%
Use and configure technology adapters, including the Java Database Connectivity (JDBC), FTP, email, Enterprise Content Management (ECM) and flat file adapters
Configure import and export bindings (for example, JMS, MQ, Web Services, HTTP, and SCA)
Demonstrate an understanding of different SCA invocation styles between synchronous, asynchronous using one-way operations, asynchronous with callback, and asynchronous with deferred response

Packaging and Deployment 9%
Generate unmanaged integration module deployment packages
Apply security to SCA application
Understand the use of shared library
Use Software Configuration Management (SCM) system with Integration Designer

Testing and Troubleshooting 11%
Test business integration solutions using component tests
Configure and use the integration test client tool to test components
Use Business Process Choreographer (BPC) Explorer for testing and troubleshooting long-running processes tasks
Use appropriate server logs and cross component trace (XCT) for problem determination
Use the integration debugger to debug business integration components
Demonstrate an understanding of Failed Event Manager (FEM) and recovering of events

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Tuesday, April 28, 2020

Exam MB-400 Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Developer

The content of this exam will be updated on May 22, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.

Candidates for this exam are Developers who work with Microsoft Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations.

Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates must expose, store, and report on data.

Candidates should have development experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI.

Skills measured
The content of this exam will be updated on May 22, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
Create a technical design (10-15%)
Configure Common Data Service (CDS) (15-20%)
Create and configure Power Apps (10-15%)
Configure business process automation (10-15%)
Extend the user experience (15-20%)
Extend the platform (15-20%)
Develop integrations (10-15%)

Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are developers who work with Microsoft Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations. Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates must expose, store, and report on data. Candidates should have development experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI. Skills Measured

NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Create a Technical Design (10-15%)
Validate requirements and design technical architecture
 design and validate technical architecture
 design authentication and authorization strategy
 determine whether requirements can be met with out-of-the-box functionality
 determine when to use Logic Apps versus Microsoft Flow
 determine when to use serverless computing vs. plug-ins
 determine when to build a virtual entity data source provider vs. when to use connectors Create a data model
 design a data model Configure Common Data Service (CDS) (

15-20%) Configure security to support development
 troubleshoot operational security issues
 create or update security roles and field-level security profiles Implement entities and fields
 configure entities
 configure fields
 configure relationships Create and maintain solutions
 configure solutions
 import and export solutions
 manage solution dependencies Create and Configure Power Apps

(10-15%) Create model-driven apps
 configure a model-driven app
 configure forms
 configure views
 configure visualizations Create Canvas Apps
 configure a Canvas App
 develop complex expressions Configure business process automation

(10-15%) Configure Microsoft Flow
 configure a Flow
 configure actions to use CDS connectors
 develop complex expressions Implement processes
 create and configure business process flows
 create and configure business rules

Extend the user experience

(15-20%) Apply business logic using client scripting
 configure supporting components
 create JavaScript or Typescript code
 register an event handler
 use the Web API from client scripting

Create a Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) component
 initialize a new PCF component
 configure a PCF component manifest
 implement the component interfaces
 package, deploy, and consume the component
 use Web API device capabilities and other component framework services

Create a command button function
 create the command function
 design command button triggers, rules, and actions
 edit the command bar using the Ribbon Workbench
 modify the form JavaScript library dependencies

Extend the platform (15-20%)


Create a plug-in
 debug and troubleshoot a plug-in
 develop a plug-in
 use the Organization Service
 optimize plug-ins for performance
 register custom assemblies by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 create custom actions

Configure custom connectors for Power Apps and Flow
 create a definition for the API
 configure API security
 use policy templates

Use platform APIs
 interact with data and processes using the Web API
 optimize for performance, concurrency, transactions, and batching
 perform discovery using the Web API
 perform entity metadata operations with the Web API
 use OAuth with the platform APIs

Develop Integrations (10-15%)
Publish and consume events
 publish an event by using the API
 publish an event by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 register a webhook
 create an Azure event listener application

Implement data synchronization
 configure and use entity change tracking
 configure the data export service to integrate with Azure SQL Database
 create and use alternate keys

The exam guide below shows the changes that will be implemented on May 22, 2020. Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are developers who work with Microsoft Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365 to design, develop, secure, and extend a Dynamics 365 implementation. Candidates implement components of a solution that include application enhancements, custom user experience, system integrations, data conversions, custom process automation, and custom visualizations. Candidates must have strong applied knowledge of Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365, including in-depth understanding of customization, configuration, integration, and extensibility, as well as boundaries and constraints. Candidates should have a basic understanding of DevOps practices for Power Apps model-driven apps in Dynamics 365. Candidates must expose, store, and report on data. Candidates should have development experience that includes JavaScript, TypeScript, C#, HTML, .NET, Microsoft Azure, Office 365, RESTful Web Services, ASP.NET, and Power BI.

Skills Measured NOTE:
The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do
NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability). Create a Technical Design

(10-15%) Validate requirements and design technical architecture
 design and validate technical architecture
 design authentication and authorization strategy
 determine whether requirements can be met with out-of-the-box functionality
 determine when to use Logic Apps versus Microsoft FlowPower Automate flows
 determine when to use serverless computing vs. plug-ins
 determine when to build a virtual entity data source provider vs. when to use connectors Create a data model
 design a data model Configure Common Data Service (CDS)

(15-20%) Configure security to support development
 troubleshoot operational security issues
 create or update security roles and field-level security profiles Implement entities and fields
 configure entities
 configure fields
 configure relationships Create and maintain solutions
 configure solutions
 import and export solutions
 manage solution dependencies Create and Configure Power Apps

(10-15%) Create model-driven apps
 configure a model-driven app
 configure forms
 configure views
 configure visualizations Create Canvas Apps
 configure a Canvas App
 develop complex expressions Configure business process automation

(10-15%) Configure Microsoft FlowPower Automate
 configure a Flow
 configure actions to use CDS Common Data Service connectors
 develop complex expressions Implement processes
 create and configure business process flows
 create and configure business rules

Extend the user experience (15-20%)
Apply business logic using client scripting

 configure supporting components
 create JavaScript or Typescript code
 register an event handler
 use the Web API from client scripting

Create a Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) component
 initialize a new PCF component
 configure a PCF component manifest
 implement the component interfaces
 package, deploy, and consume the component
 use Web API device capabilities and other component framework services

Create a command button function
 create the command function
 design command button triggers, rules, and actions
 edit the command bar using the Ribbon Workbench
 modify the form JavaScript library dependencies

Extend the platform (15-20%)
Create a plug-in
 debug and troubleshoot a plug-in
 develop a plug-in
 use the Organization Service global Discovery Service endpoint
 optimize plug-ins for performance
 register custom assemblies by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 create custom actions

Configure custom connectors for Power Apps and Flow
 create a definition for the API
 configure API security
 use policy templates

Use platform APIs
 interact with data and processes using the Web API
 optimize for performance, concurrency, transactions, and batching
 perform discovery using the Web API
 perform entity metadata operations with the Web API
 use OAuth with the platform APIs

Develop Integrations (10-15%)
Publish and consume events
 publish an event by using the API
 publish an event by using the Plug-in Registration Tool
 register a webhook
 create an Azure event listener application

Implement data synchronization
 configure and use entity change tracking
 configure the data export service to integrate with Azure SQL Database
 create and use alternate keys

QUESTION 1
You need to replace the bicycle inspection forms.
Which two solutions should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a canvas app that guides the technician through the inspection
B. a logic app that guides the technician through the inspection
C. a flow that maps inspection data to Dynamics 365 for Field Service
D. a model-driven app based on customer service entities

Correct Answer: C,D


QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.

A Common Data Service (CDS) environment has two custom entities named Building code and Work item.
Building code has a code date custom field and Work item has an elapsed time custom field. Construction
workers use a consolidated custom form with data from both entities to fill.in their daily work items.
A JavaScript library is used with these custom entities and fields to apply complex logic.
You need to ensure that the JavaScript library continues to function as originally designed if other developers
expand the environment.
Solution: In form properties of the consolidated form, add the JavaScript library in the events tab and add the
two custom fields to the dependent fields section of the non-event dependencies tab.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.

A Common Data Service (CDS) environment has two custom entities named Building code and Work item.
Building code has a code date custom field and Work item has an elapsed time custom field. Construction
workers use a consolidated custom form with data from both entities to fill.in their daily work items.
A JavaScript library is used with these custom entities and fields to apply complex logic.
You need to ensure that the JavaScript library continues to function as originally designed if other developers
expand the environment.
Solution: In the JavaScript library, add Building code with Code date and Work item with Elapsed time in the dependencies tab.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A
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Thursday, April 23, 2020

AZ-220 Microsoft Azure IoT Developer Exam

The Azure IoT Developer is responsible for the implementation and the coding required to create and maintain the cloud and edge portion of an IoT solution. In addition to configuring and maintaining the devices by using cloud services, the IoT Developer also sets up the physical devices. The IoT Developer is responsible for maintaining the devices throughout the life cycle.

The IoT Developer implements designs for IoT solutions, including device topology, connectivity, debugging and security. The IoT Developer deploys compute/containers and configures device networking. The IoT Developer implements designs for solutions to manage data pipelines, including monitoring and data transformation as it relates to IoT. The IoT Developer works with data engineers and other stakeholders to ensure successful business integration.

IoT Developers should have a good understanding of how to implement the Azure services that form an IoT solution, including data storage options, data analysis, data processing, and platform-as-a-service options. IoT Developers must be able to recognize Azure IoT service configuration settings within the code portion of an IoT solution and perform specific IoT coding tasks in at least one Azure-supported language, including C#, Node, C, or Python.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure IoT Developer Specialty

Related exams: none
Exam AZ-220: Microsoft Azure IoT Developer
Languages: English
This exam measures your ability to implement the IoT solution infrastructure; provision and manage devices; implement solutions on Azure IoT Edge devices; process and manage data; monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions; and implement security.

Skills measured
Implement the IoT solution infrastructure (15-20%)
Provision and manage devices (20-25%)
Implement Edge (15-20%)
Process and manage data (15-20%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)

Implement security (15-20%)

create an IoT Hub
 register a device
 configure a device twin
 configure IoT Hub tier and scaling

Build device messaging and communication
 build messaging solutions by using SDKs (device and service)
 implement device-to-cloud communication
 implement cloud-to-device communication
 configure file upload for devices

Configure physical IoT devices
 recommend an appropriate protocol based on device specifications
 configure device networking, topology, and connectivity

Provision and manage devices (20-25%)
Implement the Device Provisioning Service (DPS)
 create a Device Provisioning Service
 create a new enrollment in DPS
 manage allocation policies by using Azure Functions
 link an IoT Hub to the DPS

Manage the device lifecycle
 provision a device by using DPS
 deprovision an autoenrollment
 decommission (disenroll) a device

Manage IoT devices by using IoT Hub
 manage devices list in the IoT Hub device registry
 modify device twin tags and properties
 trigger an action on a set of devices by using IoT Hub Jobs and Direct Methods
 set up Automatic Device Management of IoT devices at scale

Build a solution by using IoT Central
 define a device type in Azure IoT Central
 configure rules and actions in Azure IoT Central
 define the operator view
 add and manage devices from IoT Central
 monitor devices

Implement Edge (15-20%)

Set up and deploy an IoT Edge device
 create a device identity in IoT Hub
 deploy a single IoT device to IoT Edge
 create a deployment for IoT Edge devices
 install container runtime on IoT devices
 define and implement deployment manifest
 update security daemon and runtime

Develop modules
 create and configure an Edge module
 deploy a module to an Edge device
 publish an IoT Edge module to an Azure Container Registry

Configure an IoT Edge device
 select and deploy an appropriate gateway pattern
 implement module-to-module communication
 implement and configure offline support

Process and manage data (15-20%)

Configure routing in Azure IoT Hub
 implement message enrichment in IoT Hub
 configure routing of IoT Device messages to endpoints
 define and test routing queries
 integrate with Event Grid

Configure stream processing
 create ASA for data and stream processing of IoT data
 process and filter IoT data by using Azure Functions
 configure Stream Analytics outputs

Configure an IoT solution for Time Series Insights (TSI)
 implement solutions to handle telemetry and time-stamped data
 create an Azure Time Series Insights (TSI) environment
 connect the IoT Hub and the Time Series Insights (TSI)

Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize IoT solutions (15-20%)

Configure health monitoring
 configure metrics in IoT Hub
 set up diagnostics logs for Azure IoT Hub
 query and visualize tracing by using Azure monitor

Troubleshoot device communication
 establish maintenance communication
 verify device telemetry is received by IoT Hub
 validate device twin properties, tags and direct methods
 troubleshoot device disconnects and connects

Perform end-to-end solution testing and diagnostics
 estimate the capacity required for each service in the solution
 conduct performance and stress testing
 set up device D2C message tracing by using Azure Distributed Tracing

Implement security (15-20%)

Implement device authentication in the IoT Hub
 choose an appropriate form of authentication
 manage the X.509 certificates for a device
 manage the symmetric keys for a device

Implement device security by using DPS
 configure different attestation mechanisms with DPS
 generate and manage x.509 certificates for IoT Devices
 configure enrollment with x.509 certificates
 generate a TPM endorsements key for a device
 configure enrollment with symmetric keys

Implement Azure Security Center (ASC) for IoT
 enable ASC for IoT in Azure IoT Hub
 create security modules
 configure custom alerts

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the Device Provisioning Service, you disable the enrollment group, and you disable device
entries in the identity registry of the IoT hub to which the IoT devices are provisioned.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and
1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: You delete the enrollment group from the Device Provisioning Service.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and
1,000 connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the IoT hub, you change the credentials for the shared access policy of the IoT devices.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B
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Tuesday, April 14, 2020

300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) Exam

Duration: 90 minutes
Available languages: English, Japanese

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge of implementation and troubleshooting for advanced routing technologies and services, including:

Layer 3
VPN services
Infrastructure security
Infrastructure services
Infrastructure automation

What you’ll learn in this course
The Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) v1.0 gives you the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot an enterprise network. This course covers advanced routing and infrastructure technologies, expanding on the topics covered in the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) v1.0 course.

This course helps prepare you to take the exam, Implementing Cisco® Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI), which leads to the new CCNP® Enterprise and Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure Implementation certifications. The exam will be available beginning February 24, 2020.

Course duration
Instructor-led training: 5 days with hands-on lab practice
Virtual instructor-led training: 5 days of web-based classes with hands-on lab practice
E-learning: Equivalent of 5 days of instruction with hands-on lab practice

How you'll benefit

This course will help you:
Gain the knowledge you need to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot an enterprise network
Qualify for professional-level job roles in advance routing and services
Prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) exam, which will be available beginning February 24, 2020

What to expect in the exam
This course will help you prepare for the Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) exam. This exam tests your knowledge of implementation and troubleshooting for advanced routing technologies and services. The exam will be available beginning February 24, 2020.

After you pass 300-410 ENARSI:
You earn the Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Advanced Infrastructure Implementation certification.
You satisfy the concentration requirement for the new CCNP Enterprise certification. To complete your CCNP Enterprise certification, pass the Enterprise core exam, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR).

Who should enroll
Enterprise network engineers
System engineers
System administrators
Network administrators

Technology areas
Enterprise networking
Routing and switching

Course details
Objectives

After taking this course, you should be able to:
Configure classic Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Optimize classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot classic EIGRP and named EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6
Configure Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)v2 and OSPFv3 in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Optimize OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 behavior
Troubleshoot OSPFv2 for IPv4 and OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Implement route redistribution using filtering mechanisms
Troubleshoot redistribution
Implement path control using Policy-Based Routing (PBR) and IP service level agreement (SLA)
Configure Multiprotocol-Border Gateway Protocol (MP-BGP) in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Optimize MP-BGP in IPv4 and IPv6 environments
Troubleshoot MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Describe the features of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
Describe the major architectural components of an MPLS VPN
Identify the routing and packet forwarding functionalities for MPLS VPNs
Explain how packets are forwarded in an MPLS VPN environment
Implement Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS®) Dynamic Multipoint VPNs (DMVPNs)
Implement Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Describe the tools available to secure the IPV6 first hop
Troubleshoot Cisco router security features
Troubleshoot infrastructure security and services

Before taking this course, you should have:
General understanding of network fundamentals
Basic knowledge of how to implement LANs
General understanding of how to manage network devices
General understanding of how to secure network devices
Basic knowledge of network automation

These Cisco courses are recommended to help you meet these prerequisites:
Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) v1.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 1 (ICND1) v3.0
Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices, Part 2 (ICND2) v3.0

Outline
Implementing EIGRP
Optimizing EIGRP
Troubleshooting EIGRP
Implementing OSPF
Optimizing OSPF
Troubleshooting OSPF
Implementing Internal Border Gateway Protocol (IBGP)
Optimizing BGP
Implementing MP-BGP
Troubleshooting BGP
Configuring Redistribution
Troubleshooting Redistribution
Implementing Path Control
Exploring MPLS
Introducing MPLS L3 VPN Architecture
Introducing MPLS L3 VPN Routing
Configuring Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)-Lite
Implementing DMVPN
Implementing DHCP
Troubleshooting DHCP
Introducing IPv6 First Hop Security
Securing Cisco Routers
Troubleshooting Infrastructure Security and Services

Lab Outline
Configure EIGRP Using Classic Mode and Named Mode for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the EIGRP Topology Table
Configure EIGRP Stub Routing, Summarization, and Default Routing
Configure EIGRP Load Balancing and Authentication
LAB: Troubleshoot EIGRP Issues
Configure OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6
Verify the Link-State Database
Configure OSPF Stub Areas and Summarization
Configure OSPF Authentication
Troubleshoot OSPF
Implement Routing Protocol Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution
Manipulate Redistribution Using Route Maps
Troubleshoot Redistribution Issues
Implement PBR
Configure IBGP and External Border Gateway Protocol (EBGP)
Implement BGP Path Selection
Configure BGP Advanced Features
Configure BGP Route Reflectors
Configure MP-BGP for IPv4 and IPv6
Troubleshoot BGP Issues
Implement PBR
Configure Routing with VRF-Lite
Implement Cisco IOS DMVPN
Obtain IPv6 Addresses Dynamically
Troubleshoot DHCPv4 and DHCPv6 Issues
Troubleshoot IPv4 and IPv6 Access Control List (ACL) Issues
Configure and Verify Control Plane Policing
Configure and Verify Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF)
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 1
Troubleshoot Network Management Protocol Issues: Lab 2

QUESTION 1
Automatic 6-to-4 tunnels exist between dual-stack routers (A, B, and C). One router has the IPv6 address,
Which of the following addresses is the IPv4 address of the router with the IPv6 address

A. 10.176.15.131
B. 10.200.80.67
C. 208.48.107.192
D. 208.138.16.110

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is 208.48.107.192. In an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel, IPv6 addresses have the
2002::/16 prefix. The 32-bit IPv4 address of the IPv6 router is then embedded into the IPv6 address. The 32
bits of the IPv4 address is embedded in the second and third quartet of the IPv6 address. The second and
third quarters in the IPv6 address correspond to D030:6BC0. The conversion of these hexadecimal digits into
decimal is given as follows:
The IPv6 router does not have 10.176.15.131 as its IPv4 address. The 10.176.15.131 address is the IPv4
equivalent of the second and third quarter (05B0:0F81) in the source IPv6 address.
The other two IPv4 addresses are incorrect as they pertain to neither of the two IPv6 hosts.
Objective:
Network Principles
Sub-Objective:
Recognize proposed changes to the network
References:
Cisco IOS IPv6 Implementation Guide > Implementing Tunneling for IPv6

QUESTION 2
You have recently joined a company as the network administrator. You have been asked to complete the
configuration on the border routers for an automatic 6-to-4 tunnel between several IPv6 network domains. The
commands that are currently configured on the routers are as follows:
ipv6 route tunnel
interface tunnel
ipv6 address
tunnel source
Which of the following additional commands is required to complete the configuration of automatic 6-to-4 tunnel on the border routers?

A. tunnel mode ipv6ip
B. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6to4
C. tunnel mode ipv6ip auto-tunnel
D. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An automatic IPv4-compatible IPv6 tunnel exists between two IPv6 networks. The two IPv6 networks belong to
different BGP autonomous systems (AS). The tunnel source has the IPv4 address 172.168.111.65/24 and the
tunnel destination has the IPv4 address 172.168.222.80/24.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the tunnel source and tunnel destination IPv6 addresses?
(Choose two.)

A. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is 172.168.111.65::
B. the IPv6 address of the tunnel source is ::172.168.111.65
C. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is 172.168.222.80::
D. the IPv6 address of the tunnel destination is ::172.168.222.80

Correct Answer: BD

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