PfMP Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP) Exam Dumps

 

IMPORTANT UPDATE

PMI is committed to the safety and well-being of our global community. Resulting from COVID-19, there have been significant changes to certification testing that may impact you. Please refer to our COVID-19 page for the most up to date information and guidance.

At this time, we are experiencing a surge in applications for Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP)®. We ask for your patience as the panel review process may currently take up to 60 days to complete. Our service always continues to remain our top priority, and we continue to look forward to supporting you now and into the future.

Your organization does the work right. But does it do the right work? As a portfolio manager, your role is essential to ensuring that the answer is “Yes.”

Formal portfolio management is the most effective way to implement strategic initiatives because it bridges the gap between strategy and implementation. Organizations that are effective in portfolio management had 62 percent of products meet or exceed expected ROI according to our 2012 Pulse of the Profession® research. Portfolio managers align projects, programs and operations with strategic objectives, investing resources in the right work to deliver the expected value.

The Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP) signifies your advanced competency in the coordinated management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives. Organizations with mature project portfolio management practices complete 35 percent more of their programs successfully. They fail less often and waste less money according to our 2015 thought leadership report, Delivering on Strategy: The Power of Project Portfolio Management. 

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Who Should Apply?
If you’re an executive or senior-level practitioner managing a portfolio of projects and programs aligned with organizational strategy and focused on doing the right work, then the PfMP is the right choice for you.

Gain and Maintain Your PfMP
First phase of evaluation is panel review
The certification exam has 170 multiple-choice questions and you have four hours to complete it.
To maintain your PfMP, you must earn 60 professional development units (PDUs) in portfolio management topics every three years.

Prerequisites
All applicants must possess a minimum of 96 months of professional business experience within the last 15 years AND Secondary degree (high school diploma, associate’s degree or the global equivalent) 84 months of portfolio management experience

or

All applicants must possess a minimum of 96 months of professional business experience within the last 15 years AND Four-year degree (bachelor’s degree or the global equivalent) 48 months of portfolio management experience percentages are used to determine the number of questions related to each domain and task that should appear on the multiple-choice format examination.

Domain Percentage of Items on Exam
Strategic Alignment 25%
Governance 20%
Portfolio Performance 25%
Portfolio Risk Management 15%
Communications Management 15%

Domain 1: Strategic Alignment
The Strategic Alignment domain includes the continuous activities necessary for aligning portfolio components (programs, projects, and operations) with organizational strategic objectives, goals, and priorities. Portfolio strategic alignment also involves recommending portfolio scenarios and related components to create an initial high level portfolio roadmap.

Domain 2: Governance
The Governance domain includes activities related to establishing the governance model, developing the portfolio management plan, and approving the portfolio. Tasks in the Governance domain ensure that portfolio components are authorized and processes and procedures are developed and continuously improved.

Domain 3: Portfolio Performance
The Portfolio Performance domain includes the activities required for managing the portfolio using the portfolio processes as defined by the governance model; continuously monitoring and evaluating the performance of the consolidated portfolio components in order to balance the portfolio; and reporting on progress towards the achievement of strategic objectives.

Domain 4: Portfolio Risk Management
Portfolio Risk Management includes activities related to the balancing and management of portfolio risk consistent with the risk appetite of the organization and facilitates decision making.

Domain 5: Communications Management
The Communications Management domain includes activities related to continuously communicating with stakeholders; understanding their needs and expectations; addressing issues as they occur; managing conflicting interests; and fostering appropriate stakeholder engagement in portfolio decisions and activities.

 

QUESTION 1
When we talk about portfolios, programs and projects, it is inevitable to mention the business value which is the sum of tangible and intangible assets of an organization, also known as the net quantifiable benefit.
When it comes to business value, at which level of the organization is the pursuit of Business Value optimized?

A. Program
B. Portfolio
C. Operational
D. Project

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Stakeholders have complained to you that they are receiving redundant information and they prefer that you fix the issue promptly as it is time consuming for them. What is your best course of action?

A. Explain to the stakeholders why it is important that they keep receiving this information
B. Re-assess and re-write the Communication Management Plan after analyzing the stakeholders again
C. Escalate the issue to the governance board and ask them to take a decision regarding it
D. Update the communication matrix and remove them from it

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have just finished a major checkpoint in your portfolio and the portfolio has to undergo several changes in order to re-align with the strategies. One component of your portfolio has been cancelled and the resources are going to be reallocated to other components. Which process does these activities?

A. Manage Supply & Demand
B. Authorize Portfolio
C. Manage Portfolio Oversight
D. Optimize Portfolio

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When developing the charter, you will use multiple inputs and documents of which the portfolio Strategic Plan is one. How is the strategic plan used in this case?

A. It is not an input to this process
B. The Portfolio Structure and Portfolio Manager's Authorizations are copied from the Portfolio Strategic Plan as is and incorporated in the Charter
C. It is updated based on the output of the Develop portfolio charter process
D. The prioritization model is used as a decision framework to structure the portfolio components

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When we talk about portfolios, programs and projects, it is inevitable to mention the business value which is the sum of tangible and intangible assets of an organization, also known as the net quantifiable benefit. When it comes to business value, at which level of the organization is the Business Value achieved?

A. Program
B. Project
C. Portfolio
D. Operational

Answer: D
 

ISC HCISPP HealthCare Information Security and Privacy Practitioner Exam

 

What is the HCISPP? Healthcare Information Security & Privacy Practitioner

the worldwide healthcare zone is anticipated to be one of the fastest-developing employers for the following 10 years. With the growth of the healthcare industry, the risks and outcomes of retaining fitness statistics covered and secure are increasing. accordingly, the want for qualified specialists with the vital competence to comfortable and defend health information is likewise increasing. Healthcare employers are seeking out such personnel to help them shield vital affected person statistics.

The HCISPP certification aids both the job seekers and the employers to demonstrate their abilities and commitment towards privacy and security of healthcare data.

Become an HCISPP – HealthCare Information Security and Privacy Practitioner

Earning the HCISPP healthcare cybersecurity certification is a proven way to build your career and show employers you’re on the forefront of protecting patient health information and navigating a complex regulatory environment.

The HCISPP is the only certification that combines cybersecurity skills with privacy best practices and techniques. It demonstrates you have the knowledge and ability to implement, manage and assess security and privacy controls to protect healthcare organizations using policies and procedures established by the cybersecurity experts at (ISC)².

Prove your skills, advance your career, and gain support from a community of cybersecurity leaders here to help you throughout your professional journey.

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Free HCISPP Ultimate Guide

Learn everything you need to know about preparing for the HCISPP exam, including:
Why you should get certified
HCISPP Fast Facts
What to expect on the exam
How to prepare for the exam
Value of (ISC)² certification

Who Earns the HCISPP?
The HCISPP is ideal for information security professionals charged with guarding protected health information (PHI), including those in the following positions:

Compliance Officer
Information Security Manager
Privacy Officer
Compliance Auditor
Risk Analyst

Medical Records Supervisor
Information Technology Manager
Privacy and Security Consultant
Health Information Manager
Practice Manager

Work in government? See how the HCISPP meets the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Directive 8570.1.

Is the HCISPP Right for You?
The HCISPP isn’t the best security IT certification option for everyone. Before you start down your certification path, make sure you aren’t missing an opportunity to pursue a credential more aligned with your immediate career goals.

Our broad portfolio of accredited security certifications, include:

HCISPP Experience Requirements
Candidates must have a minimum of two years cumulative paid work experience in one or more knowledge areas of the HCISPP CBK that includes security, compliance and privacy. Legal experience may be substituted for compliance and information management experience may be substituted for privacy. Of the two years of experience, one of those years must be in the healthcare industry.

A candidate who doesn’t have the required experience to become a HCISPP may become an Associate of (ISC)² by successfully passing the HCISPP examination. The Associate of (ISC)² will then have three years to earn the two years required experience.

Part-time work and internships may also count towards your experience.

Work Experience
Valid experience includes information systems security-related work performed for a healthcare organization or work that requires healthcare security and privacy controls and involves direct application of that knowledge. Experience must fall within one or more of the seven domains of the (ISC)² HCISPP CBK:

Domain 1. Healthcare Industry
Domain 2. Information Governance in Healthcare
Domain 3. Information Technologies in Healthcare
Domain 4. Regulatory and Standards Environment
Domain 5. Privacy and Security in Healthcare
Domain 6. Risk Management and Risk Assessment
Domain 7. Third-Party Risk Management

Full-Time Experience: Your work experience is accrued monthly. Thus, you must have worked a minimum of 35 hours/week for four weeks in order to accrue one month of work experience

Part-Time Experience: Your part-time experience cannot be less than 20 hours a week and no more than 34 hours a week.

1040 hours of part-time = 6 months of full time experience
2080 hours of part-time = 12 months of full time experience

Internship: Paid or unpaid internship is acceptable. You will need documentation on company/organization letterhead confirming your position as an intern. If you are interning at a school, the document can be on the registrar’s stationery.

QUESTION 1
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?

A. Document the system as highrisk
B. Perform a vulnerability assessment
C. Perform a quantitative threat assessment
D. Notate the information and moveon

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A health care provider is considering Internet access for their employees and patients. Which of the following is the organization's MOST secure solution for protection of data?

A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and digital signatures
B. Trusted server certificates and passphrases
C. User ID and password
D. Asymmetric encryption and UserID

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the BEST internationally recognized standard for evaluating security products and systems?

A. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
B. Common Criteria (CC)
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The threat modeling identifies a man-in-the-middle (MITM) exposure. Which countermeasure should the information system security officer (ISSO) select to mitigate the risk of a protected Health information (PHI) data leak?

A. Auditing
B. Anonymization
C. Privacy monitoring
D. Data retention

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is considered the last line defense in regard to a Governance, Risk managements, and compliance (GRC) program?

A. Internal audit
B. Internal controls
C. Board review
D. Risk management

Answer: B

SAP-C02 Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional Exam Dumps

 

AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional
Learn more about this certification and AWS resources that can help you prepare

This credential helps certified individuals showcase advanced knowledge and skills in providing complex solutions to complex problems, optimizing security, cost, and performance, and automating manual processes. This certification is a means for organizations to identify and develop talent with these critical skills for implementing cloud initiatives.

Exam overview
Level: Professional
Length: 180 minutes to complete the exam
Visit Exam pricing for additional cost information.
Format: 75 questions, either multiple choice or multiple response

Who should take this exam?
AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional is intended for individuals with two or more years of hands-on experience designing and deploying cloud architecture on AWS. Before you take this exam, we recommend you have:

Familiarity with AWS CLI, AWS APIs, AWS CloudFormation templates, the AWS Billing Console, the AWS Management Console, a scripting language, and Windows and Linux environments
Ability to provide best practice guidance on the architectural design across multiple applications and projects of the enterprise as well as an ability to map business objectives to application/architecture requirements

Ability to evaluate cloud application requirements and make architectural recommendations for implementation, deployment, and provisioning applications on AWS
Ability to design a hybrid architecture using key AWS technologies (e.g., VPN, AWS Direct Connect) as well as a continuous integration and deployment process

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What does it take to earn this certification?
To earn this certification, you’ll need to take and pass the AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional exam (SAP-C02). The exam features a combination of two question formats: multiple choice and multiple response. Additional information, such as the exam content outline and passing score, is in the exam guide.

Review sample questions that demonstrate the format of the questions used on this exam and include rationales for the correct answers.

Prepare for your exam
You’ve set your goal. Now it’s time to build knowledge and skills to propel your career. Check out these resources from AWS Training and Certification that are relevant to AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional. We don’t require that you take any specific training before you take an exam. These recommended resources are opportunities to learn from the experts at AWS.

Additional resources – including AWS Builder Labs and game-based learning to complement your prep – are available with a subscription on AWS Skill Builder.

Introduction
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional (SAP-C02) exam is intended for individuals who perform a solutions architect role. The exam validates a candidate’s advanced technical skills and experience in designing optimized AWS solutions that are based on the AWS Well-Architected Framework.

The exam also validates a candidate’s ability to complete the following tasks within the scope of the AWS Well-Architected Framework:
• Design for organizational complexity
• Design for new solutions
• Continuously improve existing solutions
• Accelerate workload migration and modernization

Target candidate description
The target candidate has 2 or more years of experience in using AWS services to design and implement cloud solutions. This candidate has the ability to evaluate cloud application requirements and make architectural recommendations for deployment of applications on AWS. The target candidate also can provide expert guidance about architectural design that extends across multiple applications and projects within a complex organization.
Exam content
Response types

There are two types of questions on the exam:
• Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
• Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options

Select one or more responses that best completes the statement or answers the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose. Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 65 questions that will affect your score.

Unscored content
The exam includes 10 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.

Exam results
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional (SAP-C02) exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.

Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 750. Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.
Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is intended to provide general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.
Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback. Candidates who pass the exam will not receive this additional information.
Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and task statements for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the task statements is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context. The percentage in each domain represents only scored content.

Domain % of Exam
Domain 1: Design Solutions for Organizational Complexity 26%
Domain 2: Design for New Solutions 29%
Domain 3: Continuous Improvement for Existing Solutions 25%
Domain 4: Accelerate Workload Migration and Modernization 20%
TOTAL 100%

QUESTION 1
A company is providing weather data over a REST-based API to several customers. The API is hosted by Amazon API Gateway and is integrated with different AWS Lambda functions for each API operation. The company uses Amazon Route 53 for DNS and has created a resource record of weather.example.com. The company stores data for the API in Amazon DynamoDB tables. The company needs a solution that will give the API the ability to fail over to a different AWS Region.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Deploy a new set of Lambda functions in a new Region. Update the API Gateway API to use an edge-optimized API endpoint with Lambda functions from both Regions as targets. Convert the
DynamoDB tables to global tables.

B. Deploy a new API Gateway API and Lambda functions in another Region. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a multivalue answer. Add both API Gateway APIs to the answer. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

C. Deploy a new API Gateway API and Lambda functions in another Region. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a failover record. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

D. Deploy a new API Gateway API in a new Region. Change the Lambda functions to global functions. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a multivalue answer. Add both API Gateway APIs to the answer. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company is running a two-tier web-based application in an on-premises data center. The application layer consists of a single server running a stateful application. The application connects to
a PostgreSQL database running on a separate server. The application's user base is expected to grow significantly, so the company is migrating the application and database to AWS. The solution will use
Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL, Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling, and Elastic Load Balancing.
Which solution will provide a consistent user experience that will allow the application and database  tiers to scale?

A. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora Replicas. Use a Network Load Balancer with the least outstanding requests routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

B. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora writers. Use an Application Load Balancer with the round robin routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

C. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora Replicas. Use an Application Load Balancer with the round robin routing and sticky sessions enabled.

D. Enable Aurora Scaling for Aurora writers. Use a Network Load Balancer with the least outstanding requests routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

Answer: C

Aurora Auto Scaling enables your Aurora DB cluster to handle sudden increases in connectivity or workload. When the connectivity or workload decreases, Aurora Auto Scaling removes unnecessary Aurora Replicas so that you don't pay for unused provisioned DB instances

QUESTION 3
A company uses a service to collect metadata from applications that the company hosts on premises. Consumer devices such as TVs and internet radios access the applications. Many older devices do not support certain HTTP headers and exhibit errors when these headers are present in responses. The company has configured an on-premises load balancer to remove the unsupported headers from responses sent to older devices, which the company identified by the User-Agent headers. The company wants to migrate the service to AWS, adopt serverless technologies, and retain the ability to support the older devices. The company has already migrated the applications into a set of AWS Lambda functions.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the metadata service. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Configure the CloudFront distribution to forward requests to the ALB. Configure the ALB to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a CloudFront function to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent header.

B. Create an Amazon API Gateway REST API for the metadata service. Configure API Gateway to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Modify the default gateway responses to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent header.

C. Create an Amazon API Gateway HTTP API for the metadata service. Configure API Gateway to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a response mapping template to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent. Associate the response data mapping with the HTTP API.

D. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the metadata service. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Configure the CloudFront distribution to forward requests to the ALB. Configure the ALB to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a Lambda@Edge function that will remove the problematic headers in response to viewer requests based on the value of the User-Agent header.
 
Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company is running a traditional web application on Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs to refactor the application as microservices that run on containers. Separate versions of the application exist in two distinct environments: production and testing. Load for the application is variable, but the minimum load and the maximum load are known. A solutions architect needs to design the updated application with a serverless architecture that minimizes operational complexity.
Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Upload the container images to AWS Lambda as functions. Configure a concurrency limit for the associated Lambda functions to handle the expected peak load. Configure two separate Lambda integrations within Amazon API Gateway: one for production and one for testing.

B. Upload the container images to Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Configure two auto scaled Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) clusters with the Fargate launch type to handle the expected load. Deploy tasks from the ECR images. Configure two separate Application Load Balancers to direct traffic to the ECS clusters.

C. Upload the container images to Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Configure two auto scaled Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) clusters with the Fargate launch type to handle the expected load. Deploy tasks from the ECR images. Configure two separate Application Load Balancers to direct traffic to the EKS clusters.

D. Upload the container images to AWS Elastic Beanstalk. In Elastic Beanstalk, create separate environments and deployments for production and testing. Configure two separate Application LoadBalancers to direct traffic to the Elastic Beanstalk deployments.

Answer: D

Explanation:
minimizes operational + microservices that run on containers = AWS Elastic Beanstalk

QUESTION 5
A company has a multi-tier web application that runs on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instances are in an Auto Scaling group. The ALB and the Auto Scaling group are replicated in a backup AWS Region. The minimum value and the maximum value for the Auto Scaling group are set to zero. An Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance stores the application's data. The DB instance has a read replica in the backup Region. The application presents an endpoint to end users by using an Amazon Route 53 record. The company needs to reduce its RTO to less than 15 minutes by giving the application the ability to automatically fail over to the backup Region. The company does not have a large enough budget for an active-active strategy. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
 

A. Reconfigure the application's Route 53 record with a latency-based routing policy that load balances traffic between the two ALBs. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that is based on the HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count metric for the ALB in the primary Region. Configure the CloudWatch alarm to invoke the Lambda function.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Configure Route 53 with a health check that monitors the web application and sends an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) notification to the Lambda function when the health check status is unhealthy. Update the application's Route 53 record with a failover policy that routes traffic to the ALB in the backup Region when a health check failure occurs.

C. Configure the Auto Scaling group in the backup Region to have the same values as the Auto Scaling group in the primary Region. Reconfigure the application's Route 53 record with a latency-based routing policy that load balances traffic between the two ALBs. Remove the read replica. Replace the read replica with a standalone RDS DB instance. Configure Cross-Region Replication between the RDS DB instances by using snapshots and Amazon S3.

D. Configure an endpoint in AWS Global Accelerator with the two ALBs as equal weighted targets. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that is based on the HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count metric for the ALB in the primary Region. Configure the CloudWatch alarm to invoke the Lambda function.

Answer: B

E_ACTCLD_23 SAP Certified Specialist - SAP Activate for Cloud Solutions Project Manager Dumps Download

 

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 40 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 65%
Duration: 90 mins
Languages: English

Description
The "SAP Certified Specialist - SAP Activate for Cloud Solutions Project Manager" certification exam verifies that the candidate has the knowledge required in the area of SAP project management. This exam validates whether SAP Cloud-focused project managers have advanced business skills and the ability to apply methodologies and tools. Aside from advanced communication and presentation skills, this certificate also verifies that the project manager has skills to manage internal and external stakeholders, has basic knowledge of change management processes, and can communicate these processes to others. This exam validates that project manager can successfully manage the end-to-end transition of the project from Sales to Realization, can develop roadmaps for project execution, and understand testing and quality management. In particular for SAP Cloud-related projects, the exam verifies that the Project Manager can apply the SAP Activate Methodology. It is strongly recommended that candidates are in possession of an SAP Implementation Associate Consultant certification.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands- on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training. You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Agile Project Planning > 12%
Describe the agile project roles and responsibilities and the preparation of the project including the planning, estimation, user story mapping and construction of backlog

ACT200

SAP Activate Overview > 12%
Define factors influencing SAP Activate, its purpose and place among other frameworks

ACT100
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

SAP Activate Elements > 12%
Provide an overview of content, tools and methodology elements of SAP Activate Solution Implementation Framework. Include Fit to Standard

ACT100
ACT200
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

Workstreams Overview > 12%
Describe concepts, artefact flows, accelerators, tools and roles for each Workstream within SAP Activate Methodology

ACT200
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

SAP Cloud Application Lifecycle Management > 12%
Introduction to SAP Cloud ALM, Value of SAP Cloud ALM, Introduction to SAP Cloud ALM for Implementation, Conducting Fit-to-Standard Workshops, Introduction to SAP Cloud ALM for Operations, Monitoring Business Processes

openSAP CALM1

New Implementation SAP S/4HANA Cloud > 12%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to implementing SAP S/4HANA Cloud.

ACT200
ACT5CL (SAP Learning Hub only)

Agile Project Delivery 8% - 12%
Describe how the project team prepares release and sprint plans, and the structure and key activities in each sprint. Discuss key techniques used in agile projects

ACT200

General Information

Exam Preparation 
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience. Security Guidelines

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QUESTION 1
What are some of the capabilities end users can utilize to adapt and change their launchpad home
page according to the way they work?

A. Add any SAP Fiori apps to a group, regardless of role
B. Rename a predelivered tile
C. Delete a predelivered group
D. Rearrange or move tiles within a group
E. Add a new group

Answer: B, D, E

QUESTION 2
What does SAP Activate recommend to keep team members informed and aligned?

A. Daily status meeting with project manager
B. Daily progress review meeting with sponsor
C. Daily team stand-up meeting
D. Daily e-mail status updates to project manager

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is not about Fit/Gap Analysis (done during Explore Phase)? There are 2 answers to this question.

A. Validate pre-activate and pre-assembled solution in the development system.
B. Drive towards adopting customers processes.
C. Minimize the needs for rework during realization.
D. Prioritize delta requirement and gaps.

Answer: A, B

QUESTION 4
Who determines the priority of user stories in the backlog of an Agile project?

A. Project Team
B. SCRUM Master
C. Project Manager
D. Product Owner

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
 Which accelerator can help you document the detailed design of solution extensions? Please choosethe answer.

A. Product Backlog Template
B. Change Request Template
C. Sprint Backlog Template
D. RICEF Specification Template

Answer: D

 

 

DEA-1TT5 Associate Information Storage and Management Exam Dumps

 

Explore Proven Professional Exams
Discover more about select certification exams directly from the experts. These video resources can help learners evaluate some of the critical success factors in reaching their certification goals. 

Certification Overview
This certification validates the learner’s comprehensive understanding of various storage infrastructure components in modern data center environments. It tests the learner’s knowledge of storage-related technologies in an increasingly complex IT environment, which is fast changing with the adoption of new technologies in a digital transformation era (Cloud, Edge computing, Big Data, IoT, ML/AI, and 5G). It provides a strong understanding of storage-related technologies such as storage networking technologies (FC SAN, IP SAN, and NVMe over Fabric), intelligent storage systems (block, file, and object), data protection (backup, archive, and replication), and storage infrastructure security and management.

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
Pass the following Associate level exam on or after February 11, 2022.
• DEA-1TT5 Associate - Information Storage and Management Exam

Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of February 11, 2022.

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Other Certification Recommendations
This certification will qualify towards most of the below-mentioned Specialist level certification tracks in the Dell EMC Proven Professional program
• Cloud Architect (DCS-CA)
• Systems Administrator (DCS-SA)
• Technology Architect (DCS-TA)
• Implementation Engineer (DCS-IE)
• Platform Engineer (DCS-PE)
• Security (DCS)

Please refer to the Certification Framework for more details about individual certifications.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Associate - Information Storage and Management (DCA-ISM) certification.
This exam focuses on information storage and management in a modern data center environment. It includes technologies driving digital transformation, intelligent storage systems, software-defined data center, storage networking technologies, and various business continuity options – along with security and management of a storage infrastructure. A limited number of questions refer to product examples that are used in the training to reinforce the knowledge of technologies and concepts.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

Modern Data Center Infrastructure (18%)
• Describe the data classification, elements of a data center, key characteristics of a data center, and key technologies driving digital transformation
• Explain the cloud characteristics, cloud service models, and cloud deployment models
• Explain the key characteristics of big data, big data analytics, AI/ML, Internet of Things (IoT) architecture, Edge computing, and 5G technologies
• Describe a compute system, storage, connectivity in a data center, and application center
• Describe software-defined data center, modern data center architecture, and options to build a modern data center

Storage Systems (23%)
• Explain the components of an intelligent storage system, and RAID
• Describe storage provisioning and tiering
• Explain the features and components of block, file, object, and unified storage system

Storage Networking Technologies (19%)
• Explain the FC SAN components, FC ports, topologies, link aggregation, and SAN virtualization
• Explain the components and connectivity of iSCSI, FCIP, and FCoE
• Explain the NVMe over Fabrics, Software-defined storage and networking

Backup, Archive, and Replication (24%)
• Describe the information availability measurements and key fault tolerance techniques
• Explain backup granularity, architecture, backup targets, operations, and backup methods
• Describe data deduplication and data archiving solutions architecture
• Describe replication uses, and replication and migration techniques

Security and Management (16%)
• Describe the information security goals, terminologies, various security domains, and threats to a storage infrastructure
• Explain key security controls to protect the storage infrastructure
• Describe the storage infrastructure management functions and processes

The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

QUESTION 1
What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?

A. Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.
B. Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.
C. Manages the storage space for all remote clients.
D. Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is an accurate description about Dell EMC VxBlock system?

A. CI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, software defined storage into an engineered solution.
B. HCI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, software-defined storage into an engineered solution.
C. CI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, storage into an engineered solution.
D. HCI solution that combines compute, virtualization, network, and storage optimized for VMware VSAN

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An organization wants to consume compute, network, and storage resources through self-service portal.
Which cloud service model provides this capability?

A. Software as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Platform as a Service correct
D. Data as a Service

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true regarding virtual provisioning?

A. Shared and Thin LUNS can be expanded rapidly with only minor disruptions
B. Multiple shared storage pools can be created while each pool must be allocated to a unique thin LUN
C. Virtual provisioning enables more efficient allocation of storage to compute systems correct
D. Virtual provisioning prevents issues that arise from oversubscription

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An organization is planning to secure the connection between the data center and cloud while
performing data backup and replication.
Which security control mechanism will help organization to achieve the desired security?

A. identity and Access management correct
B. Intrusion Detection and Prevention
C. Firewall
D. Virtual Private Network

Answer: A

100-890 CLTECH Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices Exam Dumps

 

100-890 CLTECH Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English

Associated certification
CCT Collaboration

Exam overview
Cisco Certified Technician Collaboration certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco collaboration endpoints and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco collaboration endpoint models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco collaboration software and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices (CLTECH) v1.0

Exam Description: The Supporting Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 (CLTECH 100-890) is a 90-minute exam associated with Cisco Certified Technician Collaboration certification. The course, Supporting
Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0, helps candidates prepare for this exam.

Cisco Certified Technician Collaboration certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco collaboration endpoints and operating environments. Technicians in this area
can identify Cisco collaboration endpoint models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco collaboration software and identify commonly found software; and use the Cisco Command Line
Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents
of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

35% 1.0 Collaboration Environment
1.1 Describe the VOIP infrastructure
1.2 Describe Cisco converged networks
1.3 Introduce Cisco Collaboration Technology and Solutions
1.4 Introduce Cisco Unified Communication Manager (CUCM)
1.5 Introduce Cisco Meeting Server and TelePresence Management Suite

20% 2.0 Cisco Collaboration Endpoints Equipment and Hardware
2.1 Identify Cisco Webex Desktop Series (DX70, DX80, DeskPro) Hardware Components
2.2 Identify Cisco Webex Board (70, 70S, 85S) Hardware Components
2.3 Identifying Cisco Webex Room Kit (USB, Kit, Kit Mini, Kit Plus, Kit Pro) System Hardware Components
2.4 Identify Cisco Webex Room 55 (Single & Dual)/70 G2 Hardware Components
2.5 Identify Cisco Webex Room Panorama (70, 70D) Immersive System Hardware Components
2.6 Identifying Cisco MX (200 G2, 300 G2, 700, 800)/, SX (10, 20) Quick Set and SX80 Codec
2.7 Identify Cisco TelePresence IX-5000 Hardware Components
2.8 Identify Cisco Collaboration Peripherals hardware

45% 3.0 Service Knowledge
3.1 Describe common network tools used with Data, Video and Voice infrastructures
3.2 Identify service-related tasks specific to Cisco Collaboration Products
3.3 Identify service-related tasks specific to Cisco IP Phones
3.4 Replace hardware due to failure or upgrade

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QUESTION 1
How does the Cisco IP phone learn the voice VLAN ID?

A. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the switch
B. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the voice gateway
C. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the Cisco Unified CM
D. through Cisco Discovery Protocol from the DHCP server

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which screen size does the Cisco DX80 offer?

A. 12-inch 16:9
B. 14-inch 16:9
C. 23-inch 16:9
D. 27-inch 4K

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two benefits of using the Cisco Ceiling Microphone?(Choose two)

A. Smartphone connectivity
B. portable
C. directional
D. frees up table space
E. higher volume


Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which three statements describe the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite (TMS)? (Choose three.)

A. TMS is aware of the call signaling between the call control device and the endpoints
B. TMS can integrate with Microsoft Exchange and Outlook to support flexible meeting scheduling
C. The complexity of a TMS installation is determined by the number of Cisco Unified Communication Manager platforms in a Cisco Unified CM deployment
D. TMS provides distributed control for on-site and remote video systems
E. TMS provides centralized control for on-site and remote video systems
F. TMS is a portal for managing and monitoring a video conferencing network

Answer: BEF

QUESTION 5
How many microphone input devices does Cisco Webex Room 70 G2 support?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: C

JN0-649 Juniper Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional

Exam Code : JN0-649
Prerequisite Certification : JNCIS-ENT
Delivered by : Pearson VUE
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions : Junos OS 21.2

Recertification
Juniper certifications are valid for three years. For more information, see Recertification.

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Preparation
We recommend the following resources to help you prepare for your exam. However, these resources aren’t required, and using them doesn’t guarantee you’ll pass the exam.

Recommended Training
Advanced Junos Enterprise Routing (AJER)
Advanced Junos Enterprise Switching (AJEX)

Exam Resources
Industry/product knowledge
Juniper TechLibrary

Additional Preparation
Juniper Learning Portal

Exam Objectives
Here’s a high-level view of the skillset required to successfully complete the JNCIP-ENT certification exam.

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Exam Objective	Description
Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs)	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of IGPs IS-IS OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 Routing Policy Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor IGPs
BGP	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of BGP BGP route selection process Next hop resolution BGP attributes: concept and operation BGP communities Load balancing - multipath, multihop, forwarding table NLRI families: inet and inet6 Advanced BGP options Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor BGP Implement BGP routing policy
IP Multicast	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of IP multicast Components of IP multicast, including multicast addressing IP multicast traffic flow Any-Source Multicast (ASM) vs. Source-Specific Multicast (SSM) RPF - concept and operation IGMP, IGMP snooping PIM sparse-mode Rendezvous point (RP) - concept, operation, discovery, election Anycast RP MSDP Routing policy and scoping Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor IP multicast IGMP, PIM-SM (including SSM) Implement IP multicast routing policy
Ethernet Switching and Spanning Tree	Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of advanced Ethernet switching Filter-based VLANs Private VLANs Dynamic VLAN registration using MVRP Tunnel Layer 2 traffic through Ethernet networks Layer 2 tunneling using Q-in-Q and L2PT Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor advanced Ethernet switching Filter-based VLANs Dynamic VLAN registration using MVRP Tunnel Layer 2 traffic through Ethernet networks Layer 2 tunneling using Q-in-Q and L2PT Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of advanced spanning tree protocols, including MSTP or VSTP. Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor MSTP or VSTP.
Layer 2 Authentication and Access Control	Describe the operation of various Layer 2 authentication or access control features Authentication process flow 802.1x - concepts and functionality MAC RADIUS Captive portal Server fail fallback Guest VLAN Considerations when using multiple authentication/access control methods Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor Layer 2 authentication or access control.
IP Telephony Features	Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of features that facilitate IP telephony deployments Power over Ethernet (PoE) LLDP and LLDP-MED Voice VLAN Given a scenario, demonstrate how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor features used to support IP telephony deployments.
Class of service (CoS)	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Junos CoS for Layer 2/3 networks CoS processing on Junos devices CoS header fields Forwarding classes Classification Packet loss priority Policers Schedulers Drop profiles Shaping Rewrite rules Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor CoS for Layer 2 or 3 networks.
EVPN	Describe the concepts, operation, or functionality of Junos EVPN Route types (e.g., Type 1, 2 3) VXLAN Multi-homing (e.g., active route types) Given a scenario, demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, troubleshoot, or monitor EVPN.

Sample Questions

QUESTION 1
You are asked to establish interface level authentication for users connecting to your network. You must ensure that only corporate devices, identified by MAC addresses, are allowed to connect and authenticate. Authentication must be handled by a centralized server to increase scalability.
Which authentication method would satisfy this requirement?

A. MAC RADIUS
B. captive portal
C. 802.1X with single-secure supplicant mode
D. 802.1X with multiple supplicant mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You enable the Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol (MVRP) to automate the creation and management of virtual LANs.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. The forbidden mode does not register or declare VLANs.
B. When enabled, MVRP affects all interfaces.
C. Timers dictate when link state changes are propagated.
D. MVRP works with RSTP and VSTP.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which address range is used for source-specific multicast?

A. 239.0.0.0
B. 233.0.0.0
C. 232.0.0.0
D. 224.2.0.0

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three configuration parameters must match on all switches within the same MSTP region? (Choose three.)

A. VLAN to instance mapping
B. revision level
C. configuration name
D. bridge priority
E. region name

Answer: B, C, E

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are correct about the deployment of EVPN-VXLAN on QFX Series devices? (Choose two.)

A. Type 1 route advertisements always have the single-active flag set to 1.
B. Junos OS supports underlay replication for BUM traffic forwarding.
C. Junos OS supports ingress replication for BUM traffic forwarding.
D. Type 1 route advertisements always have the single-active flag set to 0.

Answer: B, C

NSE6_FWB-6.4 Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiWeb 6.4 Exam Dumps Download Free

 

Exam series: NSE6_FWB-6.4
Number of questions: 33
Exam time: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiWeb 6.4
Status: Available
Exam details: exam description

NSE 6 Certification
The Network Security Specialist designation recognizes your comprehensive skills with fabric products beyond the firewall. This designation is recognized after you achieve at least four Fortinet Specialist certificates on Fortinet enhanced
products. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 6—FortiWeb 6.4 Exam
The Fortinet NSE 6—FortiWeb 6.4 exam is part of the NSE 6 Network Security Specialist program, and certifies that the successful candidate has mastered important knowledge and skills to deploy, configure, administer, manage and monitor
FortiWeb devices to protect web application servers from threats.

This exam will test a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to basic to advanced configuration, day-to-day management, and using FortiWeb to protect web applications from threats.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 6—FortiWeb 6.4 exam is intended for security professionals involved in the configuration, administration, management, monitoring, and troubleshooting of FortiWeb devices in small to enterprise deployments

Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 6—FortiWeb 6.4
Exam series NSE6_FWB-6.4
Time allowed 60 minutes
Exam questions 33 multiple-choice questions
Scoring Pass or fail, a score report is available from your Pearson VUE account
Language English, Japanese
Product version FortiWeb 6.4

Exam Topics
Successful candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:

* Deployment and Configuration
* Identify FortiWeb deployment requirements
* Configure system settings
* Configure server pools, policies, and protected hostnames
* Configure FortiWeb HA
* Troubleshoot deployment and system related issues
* Encryption, Authentication, and Compliance
* Mitigate web application vulnerabilities
* Configure various access contro* and tracking methods
* Mitigate attacks on authentication
* Configure SS* inspection and offloading
* Trobleshoot encryption and authentication related issues
* Web Aapplication Security
* Configure various threat mitigation features
* Configure machine learning and bot detection
* Configure API protection and bot mitigation
* Troubleshoot threat detection and mitigation related issues
* Application Delivery
* Configure HTTP content routing, rewriting, and redirection
* Configure caching and compression
* Troublehsoot application delivery related issues

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are strongly
encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Course
* NSE 6 FortiWeb

Other Resources
* FortiWeb Administration Guide

Experience
* Minimum of six months of hands-on experience with FortiWeb

Exam Sample Questions
A set of sample questions is available from the Fortinet Training Institute. These questions sample the exam content in question type and content scope. However, the questions do not necessarily represent all the exam content, nor are they
intended to assess an individual’s readiness to take the certification exam.

See the Fortinet Training Institute for the course that includes the sample questions.

Examination Policies and Procedures
The Fortinet Training Institute recommends that candidates review exam policies and procedures before registering for
the exam. Access important information on the Program Policies page, and find answers to common questions on the FAQ page.

Questions?
If you have more questions about the NSE Program, contact your regional training team though the Contact Us page.

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about running a vulnerability scan are true? (Choose two.)

A. You should run the vulnerability scan during a maintenance window.
B. You should run the vulnerability scan in a test environment.
C. Vulnerability scanning increases the load on FortiWeb, so it should be avoided.
D. You should run the vulnerability scan on a live website to get accurate results.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
Should the Vulnerability Scanner allow it, SVMS will set the scan schedule (or schedules) to run in a maintenance window. SVMS will advise Client of the scanner's ability to complete the scan(s) within the maintenance window.
Vulnerabilities on live web sites. Instead, duplicate the web site and its database in a test environment.

QUESTION 2
FortiWeb offers the same load balancing algorithms as FortiGate.
Which two Layer 7 switch methods does FortiWeb also offer? (Choose two.)

A. Round robin
B. HTTP session-based round robin
C. HTTP user-based round robin
D. HTTP content routes

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 3
Which would be a reason to implement HTTP rewriting?

A. The original page has moved to a new URL
B. To replace a vulnerable function in the requested URL
C. To send the request to secure channel
D. The original page has moved to a new IP address

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which statement about local user accounts is true?

A. They are best suited for large environments with many users.
B. They cannot be used for site publishing.
C. They must be assigned, regardless of any other authentication.
D. They can be used for SSO.

Answer: B

C_PO_7517 SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP Process Orchestration Exam Dumps

 

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Cut Score: 65%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: German, English

Description
The "SAP Certified Technology Associate - Process Orchestration" certification exam validates that the candidate knows the necessary tools, processes and basics for creating orchestration processes using Java technology. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of a project team in a mentored role. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Business Processes Modeling and BPMN 2.0 (Business Process Management Notation) > 12%

Explain the difference between BPM, and Business Workflow, sequence diagrams, the perspectives in NWDS, Message Flow, Data Flow, Association, the Configuration of BPMN models; Model a business process List the BPMN types of Process Diagrams; Describe the elements of BPMN 2.0; Develop business processes and flow models.

BIT800

The Role of the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX) > 12%

Define the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX), list the functionality of the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX); Explain how to Create an Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX) integration flow.

BIT500
BIT800

SAP Business Rules Management (BRM) 8% - 12%

Describe SAP Business Rules Management (BRM), the justification process for developing a new Business Rule and describe rulesets; Describe Rulesets.

BIT800

Mapping 8% - 12%

Describe and use Standard functions, user-defined functions, message mapping, multi-mapping, ABAP, Java and XSLT mapping

BIT500
BIT800

Operations and Process Monitoring in SAP Process Orchestration 8% - 12%

Explain how to Use the SAP NetWeaver Administrator functionality, the Operations tab in the NetWeaver Administrator, Certificates, Restart and Recovery and how to Access SAP Process Integration Monitoring; Start Business Processes; Define the Lifetime of Business Processes; Configure Process Orchestration in NetWeaver Administrator (NWA)Describe monitoring of the business processes and the AEX.

BIT500

Basic Concepts System Landscape Directory (SLD) and Enterprise Service Repository (ESR) 8% - 12%

Describe the use of the System Landscape Directory (SLD), the Enterprise Service Repository (ESR), the Business systems & Technical systems and the use of Software Components in the ESR; Analyze Interface Objects in the Enterprise Services Repository.

BIT500

SAP Processes Integration Architecture 8% - 12%

Explain the difference between Process Orchestration and Process Integration, and how to establish the work environment for process creation; Describe the basic SAP Process Integration Architecture, the tools available for business process development, and message processing.

BIT500

Configuration of iFlows in NetWeaver Developer Studio (SAP NWDS) 8% - 12%

Describe the use of the perspective in SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio, and how data types are mapped in SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio; Describe data objects and iFlows; List the available data types; Describe Data Types in BPMN Processes.

BIT800

Integration Objects in the Integration Directory < 8%

Explain how to configure a scenario in the Integration Directory, how to process messages using the advanced adapter engine and the integration objects in the Integration Directory.

BIT500

Roles and Authorizations of a BPM Process < 8%

Describe Software Catalog (Products and Software Components), the SAP Component mode and the use of the Objects of the Component Model.

BIT800

BPM Development Steps < 8%

Outline the configuration of business processes

BIT800

Basic Concepts for BPM Integration Flow (iFlow) < 8%

Explain process context

BIT800

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following tools are used to access the SAP Process Integration components?
Choose the correct answers.

A. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
B. Enterprise Services Builder
C. Integration Builder
D. Workflow Builder

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What are the elements that determine the uniqueness of an object in the Enterprise Service Repository (ESR)?
Choose the correct answers.

A. The name of the object
B. The name of the software component with which the object is associated
C. The associated namespace
D. The number of objects

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
You can use ... to bundle all the configuration objects that belong to a single interface scenario.
Choose the correct answer.

A. Configuration scenario
B. Advanced Adapter Engine (AAE)
C. Integration Engine (IE)

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
The Enterprise Service Repository (ESR) is in the Process Composer perspective. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are potential uses of the Advances Adapter Engine Extended (AEX)?
Choose the correct answers.

A. Controlling the routing of message exchange between applications
B. Enabling major scenario shirts from dual stack PI to AAE
C. Monitoring the exchange of messages between the involved systems
D. Managing the various versions of the services provided by the ESB

Answer: A,C,D
 

Cisco New 500-444 Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Implementation and Troubleshooting Exam

 

500-444 CCEIT : Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Implementation and Troubleshooting
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Associated certification : Advanced Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization

Exam preparation Official Cisco training
Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCEI)
Troubleshooting Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCET)

Exam Description:
Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Implementation and Troubleshooting v1.0 (500-444) tests a candidate's knowledge of PCCE Implementation Preparation, Initialization, Configuration and Troubleshooting. The courses Troubleshooting Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCET) and Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCEI) helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

30% 1.0 PCCE Implementation Preparation
1.1 Describe planning a PCCE Deployment
1.2 Explain PCCE Deployment and Staging
1.3 Describe software preparation
1.4 Explain Certificate Administration

10% 2.0 PCCE Implementation Initialization
2.1 Understand Integration Wizard
2.2 Describe a PCCE site addition
2.3 Explain CUIC/Live Data/Finesse Integration

30% 3.0 PCCE implementation – Configuration
3.1 Explain the personalization of the PCCE Dial Plan
3.2 Understand deployment from configuration to validation
3.3 Explain scripting
3.4 Describe Single Sign-On

30% 4.0 Troubleshooting
4.1 Explain the Flows and Process review
4.2 Describe the Diagnostic Framework
4.3 Understand Applied CCE Troubleshooting

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QUESTION 1
Which two certificates do the Cisco Finesse primary and secondary servers accept when HTTPS
protocol is used to access the administration console or agent desktop in Cisco Finesse? (Choose two.)

A. Domain validation certificate
B. Digital certificate
C. Self-signed certificate
D. Certificate authority certificate
E. Root certificate

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
What are two specifications for UC on UCS Tested Reference Configuration (TRC)? (Choose two.)

A. defined as Configuration Based
B. VMware vSphere is optional
C. VMware vCenter is required
D. defined as Rule Based
E. VMware vSphere is required

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
To which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration object should the call be transferred
to maintain end-to-end reporting context when an agent transfers a call to another ICM Skill Group?

A. CTI route point
B. Agent IP phone
C. Route pattern
D. Translation pattern

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode when using microapps?

A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE. VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway

Answer: C
 

Latest JN0-231 Juniper Security, Associate Exam PDF Download

 

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code : JN0-231
Prerequisite Certification : None
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions : Junos OS 21.2

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Exam Objective

Description
SRX Series Devices

Identify concepts or general features of SRX Series devices
Interfaces
Hardware
Initial configuration
Traffic flow/security processing
vSRX

Junos Security Objects
Identify concepts or general functionality of security zone, screen, address, or services objects

Zones
Screens
Addresses/address books

Security policies
Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of security policies

Zone-based policies
Global policies
Application firewall
Unified security policies
IPS/IDP
Integrated user firewall

Juniper Advanced Threat Protection

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of Juniper ATP Cloud

General operation
Blocking mechanisms

Network Address Translation

Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of NAT
Source NAT
Destination NAT
Static NAT

IPsec

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of IPsec VPNs
IPsec tunnel establishment
IPsec traffic processing
IPsec site-to-site VPNs
Juniper Secure Connect

Unified Threat Management

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of UTM
Content filtering
Web filtering
Antivirus
Antispam

Monitoring/Reporting and Troubleshooting

Describe methods for monitoring, reporting, or logging for Juniper security solutions
J-Web
Sky Enterprise
Junos Space Security Director

Who this course is for:

For students preparing for the JNCIA-SEC JN0-231 certification exam
For students who want to demonstrate solid understanding of Juniper security concepts
For network engineers and IT professionals who want to test their Juniper knowledge for their upcoming job interview

QUESTION 1
Which of these about security zones is true?

A. Logical interfaces can only be added to user-defined security zones
B. A security zone must contain at least one interface
C. An interface can belong to multiple security zones
D. A security zone can only contain one interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of these cloud providers support vSRX? (Choose two)

A. Contrail Cloud
B. VMware Cloud
C. Microsoft Azure
D. Amazon Web Services

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 3
SSH service has been correctly configured on an SRX device. However, administrators are unable to connect using SSH on the revenue ports.
Which of these can be configured to solve this problem?

A. Allow SSH traffic as host inbound traffic on the incoming security zone
B. Configure an IDP policy to allow SSH traffic
C. Configure a global policy to allow SSH traffic
D. Configure a security policy to allow SSH traffic

Answer: A



 

NSE5_FMG-7.0 Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0 Exam

 

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0

Exam series: NSE5_FMG-7.0
Number of questions: 35
Exam time: 70 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiManager 7.0
Status: Available Available

Exam details: exam description

NSE 5 Certification
The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security devices. We recommend this course for network and security analysts who require
the expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification
Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0
The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is part of the NSE 5 Network Security Analyst program, and recognizes the successfu* candidate’s knowledge of and expertise with FortiManager.
The exam tests applied knowledge of FortiManager configuration, operation, and day-to-day administration, and includes operationa* scenarios, system configuration, device registration, and troubleshooting.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is intended for network and security analysts who are responsible for centralized network administration of many FortiGate devices using FortiManager.

Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0
Exam series NSE5_FMG-7.0
Time allowed 70 minutes

Exam Topics
Successfu* candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:

* Administration
* Perform initia* configuration
* Configure administrative domains (ADOMs)
* Device Manager
* Register devices in ADOMs
* Instal* configuration changes using scripts
* Diagnose issues using the revision history
* Policy and objects
* Configure different administrative access levels using the workspace
* Perform policy and object management
* Identify ADOM revisions and database versions
* Perform the import and installation methods
* Advanced configuration
* Configure various management panes and extensions
* Implement and troubleshoot FortiManager HA
* Configure FortiGuard services
* Use the globa* ADOM to envelop policy packages
* Troubleshooting
* Troubleshoot FortiManager deployment scenarios
* Troubleshoot import and installation issues
* Troubleshoot policy and object management
* Troubleshoot device settings

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 5 FortiManager 7.0

Other Resources
* FortiManager Administration Guide 7.0.1
* FortiManager New Features Guide 7.0.0
* FortiManager CLI Reference 7.0.1

Experience
* Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Exam Sample Questions

Experience
Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Who this course is for:
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0

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---

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the scheduled backup of FortiManager are true? (Choose two.)

A. It does not back up firmware images saved on FortiManager.
B. It can be configured using the CLI and GUI.
C. It backs up all devices and the FortiGuard database.
D. It supports FTP, SCP, and SFTP.

Explanation:

Answer: AD
Reference:
https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/collections/fortinet/fortimanager/fmgr_system_backup_alls
ettings_module.html

---

QUESTION 2
In addition to the default ADOMs, an administrator has created a new ADOM named Training for FortiGate devices. The administrator sent a device registration to FortiManager from a remote FortiGate. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The FortiGate will be added automatically to the default ADOM named FortiGate.
B. The FortiGate will be automatically added to the Training ADOM.
C. By default, the unregistered FortiGate will appear in the root ADOM.
D. The FortiManager administrator must add the unregistered device manually to the unregistered device
manually to the Training ADOM using the Add Device wizard

Explanation:

Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager.0.0/administrationguide/
718923/root-adom

---

QUESTION 3
You are moving managed FortiGate devices from one ADOM to a new ADOM.
Which statement correctly describes the expected result?

A. Any pending device settings will be installed automatically
B. Any unused objects from a previous ADOM are moved to the new ADOM automatically
C. The shared policy package will not be moved to the new ADOM
D. Policy packages will be imported into the new ADOM automaticallyD
Answer: C

Explanation:


Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiManager/Technical-Note-How-to-move-objectsto-
new-ADOM-on-FortiManager/ta-p342

---

QUESTION 4
In the event that the primary FortiManager fails, which of the following actions must be performed to return the FortiManager HA to a working state?

A. Secondary device with highest priority will automatically be promoted to the primary role, and manually reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device
B. Reboot one of the secondary devices to promote it automatically to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
C. Manually promote one of the secondary devices to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
D. FortiManager HA state transition is transparent to administrators and does not require any reconfiguration.

Answer: C

Explanation:
FortiManager_6.4_Study_Guide-Online" page 346

Explanation:
FortiManager HA doesn’t support IP takeover where an HA state transition is transparent to administrators. If a failure of the primary occurs, the administrator must take corrective action to resolve the problem that may include invoking the state transition. If the primary device fails, the administrator must do the following in order to return the FortiManager HA to a working state:
1. Manually reconfigure one of the secondary devices to become the primary device
2. Reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device