Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: Validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2021
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1084-21
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Developer 2021 Associate exam is intended
for developers and those in Dev Ops who have 12 months or more experience of
developing and maintaining OCI applications. They should have a solid
understanding of cloud native fundamentals and in-depth knowledge of at least
one programming language. They should demonstrate knowledge of developing,
securing, testing and operating applications in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and
ability to use the OCI service APIs, CLI, and SDKs to write applications. Hands
on knowledge of OCI architecture, use cases, best practices are recommended.
Take recommended training Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription In the subscription:
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Review exam topics
Cloud Native Fundamentals Explain Distributed Computing
Explain Microservices vs. Containers vs. Functions
Discuss the Meaning of Serverless Computing
Describe Service Communication Patterns
Developing Cloud Native Applications
Develop Serverless Application with Oracle Functions
Develop Microservices and Applications for OKE
Use Data in Cloud Native
Use OCI APIs, SDKs and CLIupgrade
Securing Cloud Native Applications
Overcome Security challenges with Cloud Native
Use the Defense-in-depth approach
Configure and Use Secret Management
Use IAM for authn/authz
Testing Cloud Native Applications Explain the Challenges of testing in Cloud Native world
Manage multiple environments (dev, test/stage, prod)
Operating Cloud Native Applications
Manage Infrastructure
Build, Deploy and Release Applications
Perform Tasks around Monitoring, Observability, and Alerting
QUESTION 1
Given a service deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE), which
annotation should you add in the sample manifest file below to specify a 400 Mbps load balancer?
apiVersion: v1
kind: Service
metadata:
name: my-nginx-svc
labels:
app: nginx
annotations:
<Fill in>
spec:
type: LoadBalancer
ports:
- port: 80
selector:
app: nginx
A. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-value: 400Mbps
B. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-size: 400Mbps
C. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-kind: 400Mbps
D. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-shape: 400Mbps
Answer: D
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You are implementing logging in your services that will be running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container
Engine for Kubernetes.
Which statement describes the appropriate logging approach?
A. All services log to standard output only.
B. All services log to an external logging system.
C. All services log to a shared log file.
D. Each service logs to its own log file.
Answer: A
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are building a container image and pushing it to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR). You
need to make sure that these images never get deleted from the repository.
Which action should you take?
A. Set global policy of image retention to ?Retain All Images?.
B. In your compartment, write a policy to limit access to the specific repository.
C. Create a group and assign a policy to perform lifecycle operations on images.
D. Edit the tenancy global retention policy.
Answer: A
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
You are processing millions of files in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket. Each time a
new file is created, you want to send an email to the customer and create an order in a database. The solution
should perform and minimize cost.
Which action should you use to trigger this email?
A. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every second and emails the
customer when a file is found.
B. Use OCI Events service and OCI Notification service to send an email each time a file is created.
C. Schedule a cron job that monitors the OCI Object Storage bucket and emails the customer when a new file
is created.
D. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every minute and emails the
customer when a file is found.
Answer: B
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
A service you are deploying to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) uses
a docker image from a private repository in OCI Registry (OCIR).
Which configuration is necessary to provide access to this repository from OKE?
A. Create a dynamic group for nodes in the cluster, and a policy that allows the dynamic group to read
repositories in the same compartment.
B. Create a docker-registry secret for OCIR with API key credentials on the cluster, and specify the
imagePullSecret property in the application deployment manifest.
C. Add a generic secret on the cluster containing your identity credentials. Then specify a
registryCredentials property in the deployment manifest.
D. Create a docker-registry secret for OCIR with identity Auth Token on the cluster, and specify the
imagePullSecret property in the application deployment manifest.
Exam Details Exam Codes DA0-001
Launch Date
February 28, 2022
Exam Description The CompTIA Data+ exam will certify the successful candidate
has the knowledge and skills required to transform business requirements in
support of data-driven decisions through mining and manipulating data, applying
basic statistical methods, and analyzing complex datasets while adhering to
governance and quality standards throughout the entire data life cycle.
Number of Questions 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 675 (on scale of 100–900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA recommends 18–24 months of experience in
a report/business analyst job role, exposure to databases and analytical tools,
a basic understanding of statistics, and data visualization experience
Languages English
Retirement : Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
CompTIA Data+ is an early-career data analytics
certification for professionals tasked with developing and promoting data-driven
business decision-making.
Differentiate yourself with Data+ Better Analyze and Interpret Data
Mine data more effectively. Analyze with rigor. Avoid confounding results.
Communicate Insights Highlight what’s important. Produce reports that persuade, not confuse. Help
the team make better data-driven decisions.
Demonstrate Competency
Make yourself a more valuable team member. Proof of data literacy means you’re
more employable and more upwardly mobile.
What you’ll learn with Data+
CompTIA Data+ is now available! CompTIA Data+ gives you the confidence to bring data analysis to life.
As the importance for data analytics grows, more job roles are required to set
context and better communicate vital business intelligence. Collecting,
analyzing, and reporting on data can drive priorities and lead business
decision-making. CompTIA Data+ validates certified professionals have the skills
required to facilitate data-driven business decisions, including:
Mining data
Manipulating data
Visualizing and reporting data
Applying basic statistical methods
Analyzing complex datasets while adhering to governance and quality standards
throughout the entire data life cycle
What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE Data Concepts and Environments
Boost your knowledge in identifying basic concepts of data schemas and
dimensions while understanding the difference between common data structures and
file formats
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS Data Mining
Grow your skills to explain data acquisition concepts, reasons for cleansing and
profiling datasets, executing data manipulation, and understanding techniques
for data manipulation
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING Data Analysis
Gain the ability to apply the appropriate descriptive statistical methods and
summarize types of analysis and critical analysis techniques
NETWORKING Visualization
Learn how to translate business requirements to form the appropriate
visualization in the form of a report or dashboard with the proper design
components
NETWORKING Data Governance, Quality, & Controls
Increase your ability to summarize important data governance concepts and apply
data quality control concepts
Jobs that use CompTIA Data+ Data Analyst
Clinical Analyst
Reporting Analyst
Marketing Analyst
Business Data Analyst
Operations Analyst
Business Intelligence Analyst
Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE)
program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool
to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to
take the next step in your career.
Get the most out of your certification Information technology and Data & Analytics is an incredibly dynamic field,
creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our
Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and
evolving solutions and remain a sought-after analyst expert.
The CompTIA Continuing Education program Your CompTIA Data+ certification is good for three years from the date of
your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year
intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your
certification.
It’s easy to renew You can participate in a number of activities and training programs to renew
your CompTIA Data+ certification. Collect at least 20 Continuing Education Units
(CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your
CompTIA Data+ certification will automatically renew.
Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed by CompTIA for the CompTIA
certification candidate. Self-paced study guides are:
Reviewed extensively to ensure 100% coverage of the CompTIA exam objectives Clearly written and structured
Flexible, so you can learn at any pace
Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in
every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular
training options. Two common ones are:
Basic Bundle – study on your own with the confidence of a free exam retake
Exam Prep Bundle – acquire knowledge and practice your new skills, with the
confidence of a free exam retake
QUESTION 1
Which one of the clustering technique needs the merging approach?
A. Hierarchical
B. Partitioned
C. Both A and C
D. Naive Bayes
Answer: A
Explanation
C is the correct answer. The hierarchical type of clustering is one of the most commonly used methods to analyze social network data. In this type of clustering method, multiple nodes are compared with each other on the basis of their similarities and several larger groups' are formed by merging the nodes or groups of nodes that have similar characteristics.
QUESTION 2
Your friend is an analyst for a sporting venue. She wants to distill post-event free-response survey data to inform leadership what respondents have on their minds. What type of visualization should she choose?
A. Dashboard
B. Pie chart
C. Word cloud
D. Bar chart
Answer: C
Explanation
C is the correct answer. Using a word cloud to signify the relative importance and commonality of words is the best approach.
QUESTION 3
Your friend is exploring how an athlete's weight impacts their time in a 400-meter run. What should she use to determine whether weight has an impact on the time it takes to run 400 meters?
A. Z-test
B. t-test
C. Simple linear regression
D. Chi-square test
Answer: C
Explanation
C is the correct answer. Simple linear regression explores the relationship between two variables, in this case the weight of an athlete and their time in a 400-meter run. Both the Z-test and t-test infer attributes of the population using sample data. A Chi-square test explores the relationship between categorical variables.
QUESTION 4
Your friend is a financial analyst who wants to use Microsoft Excel to perform what-if analysis on data extracted from his corporate accounting system. To make the data extract easy to import, which of the following file formats should he specify?
A. JSON
B. YAML
C. XML
D. CSV
Answer: D
Explanation
A is the correct answer. A comma-separated values file can be imported natively into a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet. While Excel is capable of reading the other listed file formats, the data would not be processed into neatly organized rows and columns.
QUESTION 5
Your colleague wants to understand which product costs the least. What aggregate function can she use in her SQL query to get this answer?
A. AVG
B. MIN
C. MAX
D. COUNT
Answer: B
Explanation
C is the correct answer. COUNT will return the number of rows. MAX will return the largest value, while AVG will return the average of a numeric column. The MIN function returns the smallest value.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the hierarchical clustering?
A. The choice of an appropriate metric can influence the shape of the cluster
B. In general, the splits and merges both are determined in a greedy manner
C. The hierarchical type of clustering is also known as the HCA
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation
D is the correct answer. All following statements given in the above question are incorrect, so the correct answer is D. Hierarchical clustering, also known as hierarchical cluster analysis, is an algorithm that groups similar objects into groups called clusters.
QUESTION 7
Your friend want to understand how well his team measures up against corporate sales goals. What type of analysis will give him the perspective he needs?
A. Performance
B. Exploratory data
C. Link
D. Trend A. Arbitration
B. Acquisition
C. Merger
D. Compliance
Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Performance analysis assesses measurements against defined goals. Trend analysis compares data over time, exploratory data analysis uses descriptive statistics to summarize data and provide context for ongoing analysis, and link analysis explores connection patterns between data points.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is not a situation that leads to pursuing master data management?
A. Arbitration
B. Acquisition
C. Merger
D. Compliance
Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Acquisitions, mergers, and compliance activities are all situations that can cause an organization to pursue MDM. Arbitration is a process what settles organizational disputes and is not likely to lead to MDM activities.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data?
A. Unsupervised learning
B. Supervised learning
C. Hybrid learning
D. Reinforcement learning
Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data.
QUESTION 10
What is a hypothesis?
A. A theory that underpins the study
B. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by chance
C. A research question the results will answer
D. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study
Answer: D
Explanation
A is the correct answer. A hypothesis is a proposition that a researcher wishes to evaluate using data from a study. A hypothesis is a conclusion reached after considering evidence. This is the first step in any investigation, where the research questions are translated into a prediction. Variables, population, and the relationship between the variables are all included. A research hypothesis is a hypothesis that is tested to see if two or more variables have a relationship.
Cisco and NetApp FlexPod certification You are proficient in designing and installing FlexPod® solutions for a
variety of business workloads. FlexPod solutions speed the deployment of
infrastructure and business-critical applications while reducing cost,
complexity, and risk.
NetApp offers two Cisco® and NetApp® FlexPod certifications: FlexPod Design
Specialist and FlexPod Implementation and Administration Specialist.
FlexPod logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who
successfully pass either of the following:
Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design (NS0-175) certification exam.
Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Implementation and Administration (NS0-176)
certification exam.
Prepare for your exam Candidates for FlexPod® certification should have at least six to 12 months
of field experience working with the tools and standards for assessing FlexPod
computing solution performance characteristics and requirements. They should
also understand the hardware components associated with the Cisco® and NetApp®
FlexPod solution and the process for selecting proper hardware for a given set
of requirements.
NS0-175 Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design Specialist
Recommended Training and Resources: FlexPod Fundamentals
Technical Positioning of FlexPod Solutions
NS0-175 practice test
View exam topics
Register for your exam
Take your exam NS0-175 exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 90 minutes
to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates
will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion
time.
The NS0-175 exam covers the following topics:
Flexpod Design Describe FlexPod components based upon customer workloads
Describe how to size a solution based on customer requirements in accordance
with FlexPod best practices
Describe the support options for FlexPod
Networking Describe Cisco networking components used within FlexPod designs
Demonstrate knowledge of FlexPod networking configurations
Security Describe access control methods for FlexPod solutions
Describe the considerations in building a secure multitenancy design
Tools
Describe resources for determining supported FlexPod components
Demonstrate knowledge of using tools for managing FlexPod
Demonstrate knowledge of troubleshooting methodologies for FlexPod solutions
QUESTION 1 You are sizing a FlexPod Datacenter solution for multitenancy use.
What are two important platform scaling considerations in this scenario? (Choose
two.)
A. maximum NetApp ONTAP cluster limits
B. maximum NetApp ONTAP storage VM limits
C. maximum Cisco vPC interfaces between Fabric Interconnects
D. maximum Cisco L1, L2 interfaces between Fabric Interconnects
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2 You are developing a FlexPod solution with a MetroCluster IP as the storage
solution.
In this scenario, which two components are supported? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp AFF C190
B. Cisco Nexus 3524-X/XL
C. Cisco Nexus 3232C
D. NetApp AFF A400
Correct Answer: C,D
QUESTION 3 You are asked to evaluate SaaS-based monitoring solutions for your FlexPod
environment. Other than being
SaaS-delivered, selection criteria include full lifecycle management,
environment automation, and the ability to
monitor third-party storage that is salted for retirement.
In this scenario, which product satisfies the requirements?
A. NetApp Cloud Insights
B. NetApp OnCommand Insight
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. Cisco Intersight
Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Cut Score: 65%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English, Japanese, Russian, Chinese
Description The "SAP Certified Associate - SAP Activate Project Manager" certification
exam verifies that the candidate has the knowledge required in the area of SAP
project management. This certificate builds on basic consultant skills and
experience that is then refined by practical experience during several projects.
This exam validates whether SAP focused project managers have advanced business
skills and the ability to apply methodologies and tools. Aside from advanced
communication and presentation skills, this certificate also verifies that the
project manager has skills to manage internal and external stakeholders, basic
knowledge of change management processes, and communicating these processes to
others. This exam validates that project manager can successfully manage the
end-to-end transition of the project from Sales to Realization, can develop
roadmaps for project execution, and understand testing and quality management.
In particular for SAP related projects, the exam verifies that the Project
Manager can apply the SAP Activate Methodology.
Notes To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on
experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your
ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test
(no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).
Topic Areas Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this
certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute
a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics,
items, weighting) at any time.
Topic Areas Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this
certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute
a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics,
items, weighting) at any time.
Agile Project Delivery > 12% Describe how the project team prepares release and sprint plans, and the
structure and key activities in each sprint. Discuss key techniques used in
agile projects
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
ACT200 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)
SAP Activate Overview > 12%
Define factors influencing SAP Activate, its purpose and place among other
frameworks
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
SAP Activate Elements > 12%
Provide an overview of content, tools and methodology elements of SAP Activate
Solution Implementation Framework. Include Fit to Standard
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Workstreams Overview > 12%
Describe concepts, artefact flows, accelerators, tools and roles for each
Workstream within SAP Activate Methodology
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Agile Project Planning 8% - 12%
Describe the agile project roles and responsibilities and the preparation of the
project including the planning, estimation, user story mapping and construction
of backlog
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
ACT200 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)
Transition Path "New Implementation SAP S/4HANA Cloud" 8% - 12%
Describe concepts, landscape overview, and specifics in Workstreams related to
implementing SAP S/4HANA Cloud.
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Transition Path "System Conversion" < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to
“System Conversion” Transition Path.
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Transition Path "Selective Data Transition" < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to
“Selective Data Transition” Transition Path.
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Transition Path "New Implementation SAP S/4HANA On Premise" < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to
implementing SAP S/4HANA On Premise.
ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
General Information
Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the
Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP
Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice
in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen
and booked individually.
Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We
define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You
can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will
be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.
Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for
upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed
across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The
total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is
never exceeded when unscored items are used.
Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several
years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.
For more information refer to our FAQs.
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Overview
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Exam Process
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Post-Exam Process
Safeguarding the Value of Certification SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement
Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams.
An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards
certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments.
Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a
growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair
means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on
test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to
help to protect the credibility of your certification status.
Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to
understand the testing experience.
Security Guidelines
QUESTION 1
In which phase do you run the User Acceptance Test?
A. Deploy
B. Realize
C. Final Preparation
D. Build and Test
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which collaboration features can SAP Jam users access in the SAP
Methodologies Jam group? (Choose two.)
A. Ask questions
B. Update Key Deliverable wikis
C. Tweet questions
D. Comment on Key Deliverables
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3 What is the primary purpose of the SAP Activate Methodology?
A. To provide the sequence of actions in the project
B. To enable access to the SAP Ecosystem
C. To provide end-to-end Application Lifecycle Management
D. To manage solution documentation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You are defining the Testing Strategy for your project. What would you
include in a Scope of Integration test?
A. The connectivity between database and application servers
B. The functionality of End-to-End business processes
C. The functionality of Modular Process
D. The network communication
An IBM Certified Administrator on IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 is an
experienced system administrator who has extensive knowledge and experience with
IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 in multi-cloud environments. This
administrator can perform the intermediate to advanced tasks related to daily
management and operation, security, performance, configuration of enhancements
(including fix packs and patches), customization and/or problem determination.
Requirements Exam C1000-130: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Administration
Exam Objectives
Number of questions: 62
Number of questions to pass: 42
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Live
Group: IBM Cloud - Integration and Development Certification status: Live
PartnerWorld code: C0005101
Replaces PW code: C0005100
Required exam: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Administration
Exam status: Live
Section 1: Planning and Installation Understand system requirements
Understand cloud-based installation specifics
Install the IBM Cloud Pak for Integration cluster
Install and configure Identity and Access Management (ZEN)
Perform post-installation activities
Uninstall IBM Cloud Pak for Integration
Section 2: Configuration Deploy and configure an instance of API Connect
Deploy and configure an instance of App Connect
Deploy and configure an instance of DataPower
Deploy and configure an instance of MQ
Deploy and configure a product instance of Aspera
Deploy and configure add-on capabilities
Section 3: Platform Administration
Understand general administration
Understand OpenShift built-in platform administration capabilities
Administer Cloud Pak foundational services
Perform Cloud Pak platform upgrades
Build a CI/CD for Cloud Pak for Integration using OpenShift Pipelines and
OpenShift GitOps
Section 4: Product capabilities, licensing and governess Describe the product capabilities of Cloud Pak for Integration
Understand the licensing mechanisms
Configure license service and license service reporter
Section 3: Product Administration and Troubleshooting
Upgrade CP4I Capabilities, Foundational & Common Services, and OpenShift
Understand product-specific scaling
Use platform tracing feature to diagnose application problems
Understand logging to troubleshoot platform issues
Troubleshoot Cloud Pak for Integration operators
Troubleshoot Cloud Pak for Integration using platform command line capabilities
Exam Resources
All IBM certification tests presume a certain amount of "on-the-job" experience
which is not present in any classroom or Web presentation. The recommended
courses and links will help you gain the skill and product knowledge represented
in the test objectives. They do not teach the answers to the test questions and
are not intended to do so. This information may not cover all subject areas in
the certification test or may contain more recent information than is present in
the certification test. Taking these or any classes will not guarantee that you
will achieve certification.
The CSA exam (312-39) is available at the ECC Exam Centre.
CSA Exam Details Duration 3 Hours
Questions 100
Clause: Age Requirements and Policies Concerning Minors The age requirement for attending the training or the exam is restricted to
any candidate that is permitted by his/her country of origin/residency.
If the candidate is under the legal age as permitted by his/her country of
origin/residency, they are not eligible to attend the official training or
eligible to attempt the certification exam unless they provide the accredited
training center/EC-Council a written consent/indemnity of their parent/legal
guardian and a supporting letter from their institution of higher learning. Only
candidates from a nationally accredited institution of higher learning shall be
considered.
Disclaimer: EC-Council reserves the right to impose additional restriction to
comply with the policy. Failure to act in accordance with this clause shall
render the authorized training center in violation of their agreement with
EC-Council. EC-Council reserves the right to revoke the certification of any
person in breach of this requirement.
Overview On this accelerated EC-Council Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) course,
you'll learn to identify, monitor and analyse cyber-attacks, and use the
information to quickly respond to security incidents.
In just 2 days, you'll build the skill-set you need to work effectively within a
security operations centre (SOC). You'll also learn about security information
and event management (SIEM), deployment and architecture.
At the end of your course, you'll sit Exam 312-39 and return to the office an
EC-Council Certified SOC Analyst (CSA).
On this accelerated course, you'll learn how to: Recognise attacker tools, behaviours, tools and procedures
Use the Centralised Log Management (CLM) process
Make use of constantly changing threat information
If you're an aspiring SOC analyst or already are one at a Tier 1 and Tier 2
level, this course is ideal for you.
This course is also designed for security professionals who handle and manage
network security operations, like network and security administrators or
engineers, or network security operators.
You’ll train at twice the speed with Firebrand's unique Lecture | Lab | Review
methodology. Learn in a distraction-free environment and become an EC-Council
Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) in just 2 days.
Seven reasons why you should sit your course with Firebrand Training Two options of training. Choose between residential classroom-based, or
online EC-Council CSA courses
You'll be EC-Council CSA certified in just 2 days. With us, you’ll be EC-Council
CSA trained in record time
Our EC-Council CSA course is all-inclusive. A one-off fee covers all course
materials, exams, accommodation and meals. No hidden extras
Pass EC-Council CSA first time or train again for free. This is our guarantee.
We’re confident you’ll pass your course first time. But if not, come back within
a year and only pay for accommodation, exams and incidental costs
You’ll learn more. A day with a traditional training provider generally runs
from 9am – 5pm, with a nice long break for lunch. With Firebrand Training you’ll
get at least 12 hours/day quality learning time, with your instructor
You’ll learn EC-Council CSA faster. Chances are, you’ll have a different
learning style to those around you. We combine visual, auditory and tactile
styles to deliver the material in a way that ensures you will learn faster and
more easily
You’ll be studying EC-Council CSA with the best. We’ve been named in Training
Industry’s “Top 20 IT Training Companies of the Year” every year since 2010. As
well as winning many more awards, we’ve trained and certified 101358
professionals, and we’re partners with all of the big names in the business
Think you are ready for the course? Take a FREE practice test to assess your
knowledge!
Benefits of Training with Firebrand Two options of training - Residential classroom-based, or online
courses
A purpose-built training centre – get access to dedicated Pearson VUE Select
facilities
Certification Guarantee – pass first time or train again free (just pay for
accommodation, exams and incidental costs)
Everything you need to certify – you’ll sit your exam at the earliest available
opportunity after the course - either immediately after your classroom course,
or as soon as there are slots available, if you've taken it online
No hidden extras – one cost covers everything you need to certify
Curriculum Module 1: Security operations and management
Understand the SOC Fundamentals
Discuss the components of SOC: People, processes and technology
Understand the implementation of SOC
Module 2: Understanding cyber threats, IoCs, and attack methodology
2.1 Describe the term cyber threats and attacks
2.2 Understand the Network Level attacks
2.3 Understand the Host Level attacks
2.4 Understand the Application Level attacks
2.5 Understand the Indicators of Compromise (IoCs)
2.6 Discuss the attacker’s Hacking Methodology
Module 3: Incidents, events and logging 3.1 Understand the fundamentals of incidents, events, and logging
3.2 Explain the concepts of local logging
3.3 Explain the concepts of centralised logging
Module 4: Incident detection with Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
4.1 Understand the basic concepts of Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
4.2 Discuss the different SIEM Solutions
4.3 Understand the SIEM Deployment
4.4 Learn different use case examples for Application Level Incident Detection
4.5 Learn different use case examples for Insider Incident Detection
4.6 Learn different use case examples for Network Level Incident Detection
4.7 Learn different use case examples for Host Level Incident Detection
4.8 Learn different use case examples for Compliance
4.9 Understand the concept of handling alert triaging and analysis
Module 5: Enhanced incident detection with threat intelligence
5.1 Learn fundamental concepts on threat intelligence
5.2 Learn different types of threat intelligence
5.3 Understand how threat intelligence strategy is developed
5.4 Learn different threat intelligence sources from which intelligence can be
obtained
5.5 Learn different Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP)
5.6 Understand the need of threat intelligence-driven SOC
Module 6: Incident response
6.1 Understand the fundamental concepts of incident response
6.2 Learn various phases in Incident Response Process
6.3 Learn how to respond to Network Security Incidents
6.4 Learn how to respond to Application Security Incidents
6.5 Learn how to respond to Email Security Incidents
6.6 Learn how to respond to Insider Incidents
6.7 Learn how to respond to Malware Incidents
Exam Track
You'll sit the following exam at the Firebrand Training centre, covered by your
Certification Guarantee:
EC-Council Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) - Exam 312-39
Exam format: Multiple-choice
Exam duration: 120 minutes
Number of questions: 100
Passing score: 70%
Language: English
Domains:
1: Security operations and management (5%)
2: Understanding cyber threats, IoCs, and attack methodology (11%)
3: Incidents, events and logging (21%)
4: Incident detection with Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
(26%)
5: Enhanced incident detection with threat intelligence (8%)
6: Incident response (29%)
What's Included
Your accelerated course includes:
Accommodation *
Meals, unlimited snacks, beverages, tea and coffee *
On-site exams **
Exam vouchers **
Practice tests **
Certification Guarantee ***
Courseware
Up-to 12 hours of instructor-led training each day
24-hour lab access
Digital courseware **
QUESTION 1
Bonney's system has been compromised by a gruesome malware.
What is the primary step that is advisable to Bonney in order to contain the
malware incident from spreading?
A. Complaint to police in a formal way regarding the incident
B. Turn off the infected machine
C. Leave it to the network administrators to handle
D. Call the legal department in the organization and inform about the incident
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 According to the forensics investigation process, what is the next step
carried out right after collecting the evidence?
A. Create a Chain of Custody Document
B. Send it to the nearby police station
C. Set a Forensic lab
D. Call Organizational Disciplinary Team
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is the correct flow for Setting Up a Computer
Forensics Lab?
A. Planning and budgeting –> Physical location and structural design
considerations –> Work area
considerations –> Human resource considerations –> Physical security
recommendations –> Forensics lab licensing
B. Planning and budgeting –> Physical location and structural design
considerations–> Forensics lab
licensing –> Human resource considerations –> Work area considerations –>
Physical security recommendations
C. Planning and budgeting –> Forensics lab licensing –> Physical location and
structural design
considerations –> Work area considerations –> Physical security recommendations
–> Human resource considerations
D. Planning and budgeting –> Physical location and structural design
considerations –> Forensics lab
licensing –>Work area considerations –> Human resource considerations –>
Physical security recommendations
Important The content of this exam was updated on November 30, 2021. Please download
the skills measured document below to see what changed.
NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here. Candidates for this exam are messaging administrators who deploy, configure,
manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, compliance, threat protection, and
mail flow in hybrid and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging administrators are responsible for managing message hygiene,
permissions, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration,
transport, mailboxes, and client access.
Messaging administrators collaborate with other workload administrators and the
Microsoft 365 enterprise administrator to implement a secure hybrid or
cloud-only messaging topology that meets the business needs of an enterprise.
The messaging administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication
types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Messaging Administrator
Associate
Related exams: none
Important: See details
Go to Certification Dashboard
Schedule exam
Exam MS-203: Microsoft 365 Messaging
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks:
manage organizational settings and resources; plan and manage the mail transport
architecture; plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration; and
secure the messaging environment.
Skills measured The content of this exam was updated on November 30, 2021.
Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.
Manage organizational settings and resources (30-35%)
Plan and manage the mail transport architecture (20-25%)
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (15-20%)
Secure the messaging environment (25-30%)
Exam MS-203: Microsoft 365 Messaging – Skills
Measured This exam was updated on November 30, 2021. Following the current exam
guide, we
have included a version of the exam guide with Track Changes set to “On,”
showing the
changes that were made to the exam on that date.
NOTE: Passing score: 700. Learn more about exam scores here.
Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure,
manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, compliance, threat protection, and
mail flow in hybrid and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing message hygiene,
permissions, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration,
transport, mailboxes, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with other workload administrators and the
Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid or
cloud-only messaging topology that meets the business needs of an enterprise.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication
types, licensing, and integration with M365 applications.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to
illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam
may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.
Manage Organizational Settings and Resources (30-35%)
Plan and manage organizational settings manage a Global Address List (GAL), including hierarchical address books (HAB)
manage an Offline Address Book (OAB)
manage address book policies
manage email address policies
plan and configure organization relationships and individual sharing
manage add-ins from Microsoft 365 Admin Center
Plan and manage client access
plan namespaces
configure virtual directories and URLs in a hybrid environment
configure global Outlook on the Web policies
configure Autodiscover
troubleshoot client access connectivity problems
Manage recipient resources
manage archive mailboxes
manage resource mailboxes
manage groups including distribution lists, dynamic distribution lists,
mail-enabled security groups, and Microsoft 365 groups
manage user mailboxes
manage mailbox permissions, including delegation
manage shared mailboxes, including converting to a shared mailbox
manage license for shared resources
create and manage contacts, including Mail contacts and Mail users
manage email addresses for Microsoft Teams
Plan and Manage the Mail Transport Architecture (20-25%)
Plan and configure connectors plan connectors to route or secure mail flow
create and configure connectors to route mail
create and configure connectors to secure mail flow between organizations
create and configure conditional mail routing
configure enhanced filtering for connectors
Manage mail flow
manage mail flow rules
manage accepted and remote domains
manage hybrid mail flow
Troubleshoot mail flow trace a message
analyze a message trace
analyze message headers
analyze Non-Deliverable Reports (NDRs)
troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Support and Recovery Assistant
troubleshoot by using transport logs and queues in a hybrid environment
Plan and Implement a Hybrid Configuration and Migration
(15-20%)
Plan and implement a hybrid environment plan a hybrid deployment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard (HCW)manage
the Edge server role in a hybrid environment
configure Organization Configuration Transfer (OCT)
configure the environment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard
deploy the Exchange Hybrid Agent
manage the Exchange certificates lifecycle in a hybrid environment
Plan and implement migration evaluate migration methods, including cutover, minimal hybrid (express
migration), cutover, cross tenant, staged, PST Imports, IMAP, Google Workspace
(formerly G-Suite), batch migration by using the Exchange admin center
configure migration endpoints in Microsoft 365
manage mailbox migration batches
troubleshoot mailbox migration
plan a public folder migration to Microsoft 365 Secure the Messaging Environment (25-30%)
Manage role-based permissions in Exchange
plan RBAC roles
manage role groups
assign user accounts to admin roles
manage user roles
Manage message hygiene plan for message hygiene
configure and manage Anti-spam settings
configure and manage Anti-malware policies
monitor and review quarantined items
plan and configure Spam Confidence Levels (SCL)
configure and manage Safe attachments
configure and manage Safe links
configure and manage Anti-phishing
manage email user submissions
add and manage DNS records for domains
validate settings by using Configuration Analyzer
Manage compliance
configure retention labels and retention policies
configure data loss prevention (DLP) policies
configure sensitivity labels and policies
configure and analyze audit logs
manage journal rules
manage content search
manage core eDiscovery cases (not including Advanced eDiscovery)
The exam guide below shows the changes that were
implemented on November 30, 2021.
Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure,
manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, compliance, threat protection, and
mail flow in hybrid and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing message hygiene,
permissions, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration,
transport, mailboxes, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with other workload administrators and the
Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid or
cloud-only messaging topology that meets the business needs of an enterprise.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication
types, licensing, and integration with M365 applications.
Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to
illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam
may contain questions on
Preview features if those features are commonly used.
Manage Organizational Settings and Resources (30-35%)
Plan and manage organizational settings manage a Global Address List (GAL), including hierarchical address books (HAB)
manage an Offline Address Book (OAB)
manage address book policies
manage email address policies
plan and configure organization relationships and individual sharing
manage add-ins from Microsoft 365 Admin Center
Plan and manage client access
plan namespaces
configure virtual directories and URLs in a hybrid environment
configure global Outlook on the Web policies
configure Autodiscover
troubleshoot client access connectivity problems
Manage recipient resources
manage archive mailboxes
manage resource mailboxes
manage groups including distribution lists, dynamic distribution lists,
mail-enabled security groups, and Microsoft 365 groups
manage user mailboxes
manage mailbox permissions, including delegation
manage shared mailboxes, including converting to a shared mailbox
manage license for shared resources
create and manage contacts, including Mail contacts and Mail users
manage email addresses for Microsoft Teams Plan and Manage the Mail Transport Architecture (20-25%) Plan and configure connectors
plan connectors to route or secure mail flow create and configure connectors to route mail create and configure connectors,
includingto secure mail flow between organizations create and configure conditional mail routing
configure enhanced filtering for connectors
Manage mail flow
manage transportmail flow rules
manage accepted and remote domains
manage hybrid mail flow
Troubleshoot mail flow
trace a message
analyze a message trace
analyze message headers
analyze Non-Deliverable Reports (NDRs)
troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
troubleshoot by using the Microsoft Support and Recovery Assistant
troubleshoot by using transport logs and queues in a hybrid environment Plan and Implement a Hybrid Configuration and Migration (15-20%) Plan and implement a hybrid environment
plan a hybrid deployment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard (HCW)manage
the
Edge server role in a hybrid environment
configure Organization Configuration Transfer (OCT)
configure the environment by using the Hybrid Configuration Wizard
deploy the Exchange Hybrid Agent
manage the Exchange certificates lifecycle in a hybrid environment
Plan and implement migration
evaluate migration methods, including cutover, minimal hybrid (express
migration), cutover, cross tenant, staged, PST Imports, IMAP, Google Workspace
(formerly G-Suite), batch migration by using the Exchange admin center
configure migration endpoints in Microsoft 365
manage mailbox migration batches
troubleshoot mailbox migration
plan a public folder migration to Microsoft 365
Secure the Messaging Environment (25-30%) Manage role-based permissions in Exchange plan RBAC roles
manage role groups
assign user accounts to admin roles
manage user roles
Manage message hygiene
plan for message hygiene
configure and manage Anti-spam settings
configure and manage Anti-malware policies
monitor and review quarantined items
plan and configure Spam Confidence Levels (SCL)
configure and manage Safe attachments
configure and manage Safe links
configure and manage Anti-phishing
manage email user submissions
add and manage DNS records for domains
validate settings by using Configuration Analyzer
Manage compliance
configure retention labels and retention policies
configure data loss prevention (DLP) policies
configure sensitivity labels and policies
configure and analyze audit logs
manage journal rules
manage content search
manage core eDiscovery cases (not including Advanced eDiscovery)
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet
the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in
this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions
will not appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200
mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a
syntax that uses the first letter of each user’s last name, followed by the
user’s first name, and then @fabrikam.com.
Solution: You convert all the mailboxes to shared mailboxes, and then you run
the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -EmailAddressPolicyEnabled $false
parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Email address policies define the rules that create email addresses for
recipients in your Exchange organization.
The basic components of an email address policy are:
Email address templates: Define the email address format for the recipients (for
example
<firstname>@contoso.com or <lastname>.<firstname>@contoso.com).
Recipient filter: Specifies the recipients whose email addresses are configured
by the policy.
Priority: Specifies the order to apply the email address policies (important if
a recipient is identified by more
than one policy).
The EmailAddressPolicyEnabled parameter specifies whether to apply email address
policies to this recipient.
Valid values are: $true: Email address policies are applied to this recipient. This is the
default value.
$false: Email address policies aren't applied to this recipient.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/emailaddresspolicies?
view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200
mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a
syntax that uses the first
letter of each user’s last name, followed by the user’s first name, and then
@fabrikam.com.
Solution: You create an email address policy that uses the %1s%g@fabrikam.com
email address format.
Does this meet the goal?
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same
scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some
question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to
it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200
mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a
syntax that uses the first
letter of each user’s last name, followed by the user’s first name, and then
@fabrikam.com.
Solution: You convert all the mailboxes to shared mailboxes, and then you run
the
Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -EmailAddressPolicyEnabled $true parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Email address policies define the rules that create email addresses for
recipients in your Exchange organization.
The basic components of an email address policy are:
Email address templates: Define the email address format for the recipients (for
example
<firstname>@contoso.com or <lastname>.<firstname>@contoso.com).
Recipient filter: Specifies the recipients whose email addresses are configured
by the policy.
Priority: Specifies the order to apply the email address policies (important if
a recipient is identified by more than one policy).
The EmailAddressPolicyEnabled parameter specifies whether to apply email address
policies to this recipient.
Valid values are:
$true: Email address policies are applied to this recipient. This is the default
value.
$false: Email address policies aren't applied to this recipient.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/emailaddresspolicies?
view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several users report today that they cannot access email from their mobile
device. They successfully
accessed their email from the same device yesterday.
You need to identify which mobile device access rule applies to the devices.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-ActiveSyncDeviceClass
B. Get-ActiveSyncOrganizationSettings
C. Get-MobileDevice
D. Get-MobileDeviceMailboxPolicy
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Get-MobileDevice cmdlet returns identification, configuration, and status
information for each mobile device.
Note: The Get-MobileDeviceStatistics cmdlet can also be used.
QUESTION 5 You have a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant.
All users are assigned only an Office 365 Enterprise E3 license.
You need to ensure that the users can use only Microsoft Outlook to connect to
their Microsoft 365 mailbox
when they connect from an Android device.
What should you create?
A. a conditional access policy in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
B. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
C. an app protection policy Microsoft Endpoint Manager
D. a connection filter policy in Exchange Online Protection (EOP)
To achieve the professional designation of The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined
Part 1 and Part 2 from the Open Group, candidates must clear the OG0-093 Exam
with the minimum cut-off score. For those who wish to pass the Open Group TOGAF
9 Combined certification exam with good percentage, please take a look at the
following reference document detailing what should be included in Open Group
TOGAF 9 Part 1 and Part 2 Combined Exam preparation.
The Open Group OG0-093 Exam Summary, Body of Knowledge (BOK), Sample Question
Bank and Practice Exam provide the basis for the real The Open Group TOGAF 9
Combined - Level 1 and Level 2 exam. We have designed these resources to help
you get ready to take The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2
(OG0-093) exam. If you have made the decision to become a certified
professional, we suggest you take authorized training and prepare with our
online premium Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Practice Exam to achieve the best
result.
Open Group OG0-093 Exam Summary:
Exam Name The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2
Exam Code OG0-093
Exam Fee USD $550
Exam Duration 150 Minutes
Number of Questions 48
Passing Score 55-60
Format Multiple Choice Questions
Books / Trainings TOGAF 9 Foundation Study Guide, 4th Edition
TOGAF 9 Certified Study Guide, 4th Edition
Schedule Exam Pearson VUE
Sample Questions Open Group TOGAF 9 Part 1 Exam Sample Questions and Answers
Open Group TOGAF 9 Part 2 Exam Sample Questions and Answers
Practice Exam The Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined - Level 1 and Level 2 Practice
Test
Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined Syllabus Topics:
Part: 1The Value of this Certification
Individuals certified at this level will have demonstrated their
understanding of - The basic concepts of Enterprise Architecture and the TOGAF
standard - The core concepts of the TOGAF 9 standard
- The key terminology of the TOGAF 9 standard
- The ADM cycle and the objectives of each phase, and how to adapt and scope the
ADM
- The concept of the Enterprise Continuum; its purpose and constituent parts
- How each of the ADM phases contributes to the success of Enterprise
Architecture
- The ADM guidelines and techniques
- How Architecture Governance contributes to the Architecture Development Cycle
- The concepts of views and viewpoints and their role in communicating with
stakeholders
- The concept of building blocks
- The key deliverables of the ADM cycle
- The TOGAF reference models
- The TOGAF certification program
Part: 2 The Value of this Certification
Individuals certified at this level will have demonstrated their understanding
of - How to apply the ADM phases in development of an Enterprise Architecture - How to apply Architecture Governance in development of an Enterprise
Architecture
- How to apply the TOGAF Architecture Content Framework
- How to apply the concept of Building Blocks
- How to apply the Stakeholder Management Technique
- How to apply the TOGAF Content Metamodel
- How to apply the TOGAF standard recommended techniques when developing an
Enterprise Architecture
- The TOGAF Technical Reference Model and how to customize it to meet an
organization’s needs
- The Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
- The content of the key deliverables of the ADM cycle
- How an Enterprise Architecture can be partitioned to meet the specific needs
of an organization
- The purpose of the Architecture Repository
- How to apply iteration and different levels of architecture with the ADM
- How to adapt the ADM for security
- The role of architecture maturity models in developing an Enterprise
Architecture
- The purpose of the Architecture Skills Framework and how to apply it within an
organization
Both Open Group and veterans who’ve earned multiple certifications maintain that
the best preparation for a Open Group OG0-093 professional certification exam is
practical experience, hands-on training and practice exam. This is the most
effective way to gain in-depth understanding of Open Group TOGAF 9 Part 1 and
Part 2 Combined concepts. When you understand techniques, it helps you retain
Open Group TOGAF 9 Combined knowledge and recall that when needed.
QUESTION 1
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures
addressing Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Answer: C
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. It is a detailed data model that can be tailored to specific industries
B. It is an example of a Common Systems Architecture
C. It is a fundamental architecture upon which more specific architectures can be based
D. It is a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications
Answer: C
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?
A. Part I, the Enterprise Continuum, describes a model for structuring a virtual repository
B. Part II, the Architecture Development Method, describes the definitions of terms used in TOGAF, and the
changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III, Tools and Support, describes a collection of guidelines and techniques used in the other parts of
TOGAF
D. Part VI, TOGAF Reference Models, includes a model for release management of the TOGAF specification
E. Part VII, the Architecture Capability Framework, describes processes and skills to establish an enterprise
function
Answer: E
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which phase of the ADM ensures that implementation projects conform to the defined architecture?
A. Requirements Management
B. Phase D
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
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Summary
Certification as a Sitecore Developer brings a host of advantages to
individuals and teams. The key benefits of the Sitecore Experience Solution 9
Developer Certification Exam include:
Formal certification Access to Sitecore support if you belong to an organization with support
contractor access
Validating your understanding and application of Sitecore Developer competencies
Establishing your credibility and expertise with your peers
Giving you more career visibility within professional job marketplace
The key benefits of the Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer
Certification Exam for organizations building Sitecore solutions include: Helping you hire Sitecore expertise
Differentiating you in a marketplace of Sitecore solution providers
In-depth knowledge about all aspects of the platform, thus enabling it to its
full potential
Description
What’s included?
Your exam enrollment provides the following: A three-month voucher to register for an exam proctoring appointment through
Webassessor
Enrollment in the Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Study
Guide on Learning@Sitecore
Prerequisites: If you have not participated in any Sitecore Developer learning, we highly
recommend that you have working knowledge of Sitecore Developer practices or
have a history of implementing Sitecore solutions. In order to pass the Sitecore
Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam, you’ll find that knowledge
and experience of the Sitecore platform isn’t enough. You will also need to make
sure you are proficient in the exam competencies. To successfully pass the exam,
we encourage you to prepare by enrolling in any relevant specific course
offerings, as well as carefully review the Exam Study Guide.
Exam questions:
The Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam is made up of
scenario-based questions that ask you to describe how you might respond to a
hypothetical situation as a Developer who is working with Sitecore. The
questions try to pin down your thought processes rather than have you recite
learned responses from memory.
Closed or open book:
The Sitecore Experience Solution 9 Developer Certification Exam is closed book.
You can take the exam anywhere in the world from your home or office—24 hours a
day, 7 days a week—via Sitecore’s Learning Management System. This exam is
confidential and proprietary. It is made available to you, the test taker,
solely for the purpose of assessing your proficiency level in the skill areas
referenced in the title of this exam. You will not be allowed to refer to notes,
study guides, training materials, web searches, Sitecore installations or other
software, etc., during the exam.
Information about proctoring through Webassessor All Sitecore Certification exams are required to be proctored exams given by
Webassessor.
You are able to register for an online or in-person proctoring of the exam
through Webassessor.
Note that about 55% of KTN testing centers, closed temporarily due to COVID-19,
have begun to re-open with reduced capacity or testing schedules in order to
comply with local health guidelines.
A list of currently open centers can be found on the test-center-locator page.
You can find a daily, updated list of closed test centers on the Kryterion
website
Exam retakes If you fail to pass the Certification exam, retakes can be purchased for 300
USD through the Learning@Sitecore Catalog or directly from Webassessor.
The Power BI data analyst delivers actionable insights by
leveraging available data and applying domain expertise. The Power BI data
analyst collaborates with key stakeholders across verticals to identify business
requirements, cleans and transforms the data, and then designs and builds data
models by using Power BI. The Power BI data analyst provides meaningful business
value through easy-to-comprehend data visualizations, enables others to perform
self-service analytics, and deploys and configures solutions for consumption.
Candidates for this exam should be proficient using Power Query and writing
expressions by using DAX.
Exam PL-300: Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks:
prepare the data; model the data; visualize and analyze the data; and deploy and
maintain assets.
Skills measured Prepare the data (15-20%)
Model the data (30-35%)
Visualize and analyze the data (25-30%)
Deploy and maintain assets (20-25%)
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to
illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam
may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.
Prepare the Data (15-20%)
Get data from different data sources identify and connect to a data source
change data source settings
select a shared dataset or create a local dataset
select a storage mode
use Microsoft Dataverse
change the value in a parameter
connect to a data flow
Clean, transform, and load the data profile the data
resolve inconsistencies, unexpected or null values, and data quality issues
identify and create appropriate keys for joins
evaluate and transform column data types
shape and transform tables
combine queries
apply user-friendly naming conventions to columns and queries
configure data loading
resolve data import errors
Model the Data (30—35%)
Design a data model
define the tables
configure table and column properties
design and implement role-playing dimensions
define a relationship's cardinality and cross-filter direction
design a data model that uses a star schema
create a common date table
Develop a data model
create calculated tables
create hierarchies
create calculated columns
implement row-level security roles
use the Q&A feature
Create model calculations by using DAX create basic measures by using DAX
use CALCULATE to manipulate filters
implement Time Intelligence using DAX
replace implicit measures with explicit measures
use basic statistical functions
create semi-additive measures
use quick measures
Optimize model performance remove unnecessary rows and columns
identify poorly performing measures, relationships, and visuals
reduce cardinality levels to improve performance
Visualize and Analyze the Data (25—30%)
Create reports
add visualization items to reports
choose an appropriate visualization type
format and configure visualizations
use a custom visual
apply and customize a theme
configure conditional formatting
apply slicing and filtering
configure the report page
use the Analyze in Excel feature
choose when to use a paginated report
Create dashboards manage tiles on a dashboard
configure mobile view
use the Q&A feature
add a Quick Insights result to a dashboard
apply a dashboard theme
pin a live report page to a dashboard
Enhance reports for usability and storytelling
configure bookmarks
create custom tooltips
edit and configure interactions between visuals
configure navigation for a report
apply sorting
configure Sync Slicers
group and layer visuals by using the selection pane
drilldown into data using interactive visuals
export report data
design reports for mobile devices
Identify patterns and trends
use the Analyze feature in Power BI
identify outliers
choose between continuous and categorical axes
use groupings, binnings, and clustering
use AI visuals
use the Forecast feature
create reference lines by using the Analytics pane
Deploy and Maintain Assets (20—25%)
Manage files and datasets
identify when a gateway is required
configure a dataset scheduled refresh
configure row-level security group membership
provide access to datasets
manage global options for files
Manage workspaces create and configure a workspace
assign workspace roles
configure and update a workspace app
publish, import, or update assets in a workspace
apply sensitivity labels to workspace content
configure subscriptions and data alerts
promote or certify Power BI content
Exam Description: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies v1.0 (ENCOR 350-401)
is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP and CCIE Enterprise
Certifications. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of implementing core
enterprise network technologies including dual stack (IPv4 and IPv6)
architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security and
automation. The course, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies,
helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
15% 1.0 Architecture 1.1 Explain the different design principles used in an enterprise
network
1.1.a Enterprise network design such as Tier 2, Tier 3, and Fabric Capacity
planning
1.1.b High availability techniques such as redundancy, FHRP, and SSO
1.2 Analyze design principles of a WLAN deployment
1.2.a Wireless deployment models (centralized, distributed, controller-less,
controller based, cloud, remote branch)
1.2.b Location services in a WLAN design
1.3 Differentiate between on-premises and cloud infrastructure deployments
1.4 Explain the working principles of the Cisco SD-WAN solution
1.4.a SD-WAN control and data planes elements
1.4.b Traditional WAN and SD-WAN solutions
1.5 Explain the working principles of the Cisco SD-Access solution
1.5.a SD-Access control and data planes elements
1.5.b Traditional campus interoperating with SD-Access
1.6 Describe concepts of wired and wireless QoS
1.6.a QoS components
1.6.b QoS policy
1.7 Differentiate hardware and software switching mechanisms
1.7.a Process and CEF
1.7.b MAC address table and TCAM
1.7.c FIB vs. RIB
10% 2.0 Virtualization
2.1 Describe device virtualization technologies
2.1.a Hypervisor type 1 and 2
2.1.b Virtual machine
2.1.c Virtual switching
2.2 Configure and verify data path virtualization technologies
2.2.a VRF
2.2.b GRE and IPsec tunneling
2.3 Describe network virtualization concepts
2.3.a LISP
2.3.b VXLAN
30% 3.0 Infrastructure
3.1 Layer 2
3.1.a Troubleshoot static and dynamic 802.1q trunking protocols
3.1.b Troubleshoot static and dynamic EtherChannels
3.1.c Configure and verify common Spanning Tree Protocols (RSTP and MST)
3.2 Layer 3
3.2.a Compare routing concepts of EIGRP and OSPF (advanced distance vector
vs. link state, load balancing, path selection, path operations, metrics)
3.2.b Configure and verify simple OSPF environments, including multiple
normal areas, summarization, and filtering (neighbor adjacency,
point-to-point and broadcast network types, and passive interface)
3.2.c Configure and verify eBGP between directly connected neighbors (best
path selection algorithm and neighbor relationships)
3.3 Wireless
3.3.a Describe Layer 1 concepts, such as RF power, RSSI, SNR, interference
noise, band and channels, and wireless client devices capabilities
3.3.b Describe AP modes and antenna types
3.3.c Describe access point discovery and join process (discovery
algorithms, WLC selection process)
3.3.d Describe the main principles and use cases for Layer 2 and Layer 3
roaming
3.3.e Troubleshoot WLAN configuration and wireless client connectivity
issues
3.4 IP Services
3.4.a Describe Network Time Protocol (NTP)
3.4.b Configure and verify NAT/PAT
3.4.c Configure first hop redundancy protocols, such as HSRP and VRRP
3.4.d Describe multicast protocols, such as PIM and IGMP v2/v3
10% 4.0 Network Assurance 4.1 Diagnose network problems using tools such as debugs, conditional
debugs, trace route, ping, SNMP, and syslog
4.2 Configure and verify device monitoring using syslog for remote logging
4.3 Configure and verify NetFlow and Flexible NetFlow
4.4 Configure and verify SPAN/RSPAN/ERSPAN
4.5 Configure and verify IPSLA
4.6 Describe Cisco DNA Center workflows to apply network configuration,
monitoring, and management
4.7 Configure and verify NETCONF and RESTCONF
20% 5.0 Security 5.1 Configure and verify device access control
5.1.a Lines and password protection
5.1.b Authentication and authorization using AAA
5.2 Configure and verify infrastructure security features
5.2.a ACLs
5.2.b CoPP
5.3 Describe REST API security
5.4 Configure and verify wireless security features
5.4.a EAP
5.4.b WebAuth
5.4.c PSK
5.5 Describe the components of network security design
5.5.a Threat defense
5.5.b Endpoint security
5.5.c Next-generation firewall
5.5.d TrustSec, MACsec
5.5.e Network access control with 802.1X, MAB, and WebAuth
15% 6.0 Automation
6.1 Interpret basic Python components and scripts
6.2 Construct valid JSON encoded file
6.3 Describe the high-level principles and benefits of a data modeling
language, such as YANG
6.4 Describe APIs for Cisco DNA Center and vManage
6.5 Interpret REST API response codes and results in payload using Cisco DNA
Center and RESTCONF
6.6 Construct EEM applet to automate configuration, troubleshooting, or data
collection
6.7 Compare agent vs. agentless orchestration tools, such as Chef, Puppet,
Ansible, and SaltStack
QUESTION 1 What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?
A. The FIB is populated based on RIB content.
B. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB.
C. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions.
D. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored.
Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is
treated in the network?
A. policing
B. classification
C. marking
D. shaping
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?
A. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching
decisions.
B. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane.
C. It maintains two tables in the data plane: the FIB and adjacency table.
D. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS
scheduler.
Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud
infrastructure deployment?
A. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install
additional hardware
B. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises
C. faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be
purchased
D. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other
