Friday, January 27, 2023

HPE6-A75 Aruba Certified Edge Professional Exam Dumps

 

Exam ID : HPE6-A75
Exam type : Proctored
Exam duration : 1 hour 30 minutes
Delivery languages : English

Exam Details
Ideal candidate The ideal candidate is a professional in Design, Mobility, Switching, ClearPass and Security.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Here are types of questions to expect:
Multiple choice (multiple responses) Multiple choice (single response)
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

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Candidates must select and pass three sections. Each section must be passed independently to pass the exam. Twenty items will deliver for each chosen section. You will need to score 70% in each of the selected sections in order to pass the entire exam. The passing score may differ from the new candidate exam. The questions are specifically selected to support a 70% passing score.
Percentage of Exam

Design 10%
Gather and analyze data, and document customer requirements for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network.

Given an outline of a customer's needs, determine the information required to create a solution.

18% Evaluate the requirements for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network, and select the wired and wireless networking technologies for the design.
Given a scenario, evaluate the customer requirements to identify gaps per a gap analysis, and select components based on the analysis results.
Given a scenario, translate the business needs of the environment into technical customer requirements.

31% Plan and design an Aruba solution per the customer requirements for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network.
Given a scenario, select the appropriate products based on the customer technical requirements.
Given the customer requirements, design the high-level architecture.
Given a customer scenario, explain how a specific technology or solution would meet the customer requirements.

33% Produce a detailed design specification document for a single-site campus environment with less than 1000 employees or subsystems of an enterprise-wide network.
Given a customer scenario, choose the appropriate components that should be included on the BOM.
Given the customer requirements, determine the component details and document the high-level design.
Given a customer scenario, determine and document a detailed network management design.
Given a customer scenario, design and document a detailed network security solution.
Given a customer scenario, design and document the logical and physical network solutions.
Given the customer scenario and service level agreements, document the licensing and maintenance requirements.

8% Recommend the solution to the customer.
Given the customer's requirements, explain and justify the recommended solution.

33% Mobility
20% Integrate and implement Aruba Mobile First architecture components and explain their uses.
Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture.
Differentiate between standalone mode and Master Controller Mode (MCM) features and recommend use cases.
Differentiate the use of packet forwarding modes (tunnel, decrypt-tunnel, split-tunnel, and bridge).
Differentiate between redundancy methods, and describe the benefits of L2 and L3 clustering.
Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures.
Describe and differentiate advanced licensing features.

20% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions.
• Configure Remote Access with Aruba Solutions such as RAP and VIA.
• Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design.
• Configure a Mesh WLAN.

38% Implement advanced services and security.

• Enable multicast DNS features to support discovery across VLAN boundaries.
• Configure role derivation, and explain and implement advanced role features.
• Configure an AAA server profile for a user or administrative access.
• Implement Mobility Infrastructure hardening features.
• Explain Clarity features and functions.
• Implement Voice WLAN based upon a given design.
• Configure primary zones and data zones to support MultiZone AP.
• Implement mobility (roaming) in an Aruba wireless environment.
• Implement tunneled node to secure ArubaOS switches.

10% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions.
• Use AirWave to monitor an Aruba Mobility Master and Mobility Controller.
• Perform maintenance upgrades and operational maintenance.

12% Troubleshoot Aruba WLAN solutions.
• Troubleshoot controller communication.
• Troubleshoot the WLAN.
• Troubleshoot Remote Access.
• Troubleshoot issues related to services and security.
• Troubleshoot role-based access, per-port based security and Airmatch.

Switching

15% Plan the wired network solution.
Given a scenario with a design and/or customer requirements, determine an appropriate implementation plan.

43% Install and configure the wired network solution.
Install and Configure NetEdit
Given an implementation plan, explain how to physically configure the switches.
Given the implementation plan, explain how to configure Layer 2 technologies.
Given an implementation plan, explain how to configure and validate Layer 3 interfaces, services, routing protocols and overlays.
Explain multicast features and configuration concepts.
Explain Aruba Switch security features and configuration concepts.
Explain QoS Aruba Switch features and configuration concepts.
Explain Aruba solutions integration and configuration concepts.

22% Troubleshoot the wired network solution.
Given a scenario, identify a network failure (IP mismatch, VLAN mismatch, hardware configuration or failure, port configuration).
Given an action plan to remediate an issue, determine the implications to the network state.
Given a scenario, determine the cause of the performance problem (QoS issue, Configuration issue HW and Software, end node).

20% Manage, maintain, optimize, and monitor the wired network solution.
Given a scenario, determine a strategy to implement configuration management (maintenance, auditing, backup, archiving).
Analyze data that represents the operational state of a network and determine the appropriate action.

ClearPass
5% Intro to ClearPass
25% ClearPass for AAA
6% External Authentication
23% Guest
17% Onboard
6% Endpoint Analysis
8% Posture
5% Operations and Admin Users
5% Clustering and Redundancy


76% Protect and Defend
Define security terminology
Describe PKI dependencies
Mitigate threats by using CPDI to identify traffic flows and apply tags and CPPM to take actions based on tags
Explain methods and benefits of profiling
Explain how Aruba solutions apply to different security vectors
Explain Zero Trust Security in relation to Aruba solutions
Explain WIPS and WIDS, as well as describe the Aruba 9x00 Series
Describe log types and levels and use the CPPM ingress event engine to integrate with 3rd party logging solutions
Explain dynamic segmentation, including its benefits and use cases
Explain VPN deployment types and IPsec concepts such as protocols, algorithms, certificate-based authentication with IKE, and reauth intervals
Device hardening
Set up secure authentication and authorization of network infrastructure managers
Secure L2 and L3 protocols
Secure WLAN
Deploy AAA for WLANs with ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM)"
Define and apply advanced firewall policies (appRF, PEF, WIPS, WebCC, UTM)
Set up integration between the Aruba infrastructure and CPPM, allowing CPPM to take action in response to events
Configure rogue AP detection and mitigation
Secure wired AOS-CX
Deploy AAA for wired devices with CPPM
Configure 802.1x Authentication for AP
Deploy dynamic segmentation
Deploy certificate-based authentication for users and devices
Set up integration between the Aruba infrastructure and CPPM, allowing CPPM to take action in response to events
Secure the WAN
Understand that Aruba SD-Branch automates VPN deployment for the WAN
Design and deploy remote VPN with VIA
Endpoint classification
Deploy and apply endpoint classification to the device
Define endpoint classification methodology using active and passive methods
Define, deploy, and integrate ClearPass and CPDI

23% Analyze

Threat detection
Investigate Central alerts
Interpret packet captures
Recommend action based on the analysis of the Central alerts
Evaluate endpoint posture
Troubleshooting
Deploy and analyze Network Analytic Engine (NAE) scripts for monitoring and correlation
Perform packet capture on Aruba infrastructure locally and using Central
Endpoint classification
Analyze endpoint classification data to identify risk
Analyze endpoint classification data on CPDI

1% Investigate

Forensics
Explain CPDI capabilities for showing network conversations on supported Aruba devices

QUESTION 1
A company has AOS-Switches deployed at sites with inexperienced IT staff. The main office network administrators want to track if configurations change on branch switches.
What should be set up for this purpose?

A. an SNMP trap
B. an RMON alarm
C. an auto-config server
D. an lP SLA profile

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A network administrator configures V5F settings on two Aruba 2930F switches.
The switches form two separate VSF fabrics. What should the administrator check?

A. that the domain ID matches on both switches
B. that each switch is assigned a unique VSF priority
C. that the switch with the lower priority has the lower member ID
D. that LLDP MAD is configured on both members

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the captive portal URL hash key on an AOS-Switch?

A. It authenticates guest users based on the password the users enter hi the portal.
B. It encrypts and secures the RADIUS messages that the AOS-Switch sends to ClearPass.
C. It does not let users alter the URL that redirects them to the portal.
D. It specifies the captive portal URL and conceals the setting in the config.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
OSPF is configured on an AOS-Switch, and the network administrator sets the router ID to 10.0.0.1.
The administrator wants to be able to reach the switch at this ID from any location throughout the
OSPF system. The administrator also needs the router ID to De stable and available,
even if some links on the switch fail.

What should the administrator do?

A. Make sure that 10.0.0.1 is the IP address on the VLAN with the lowest ID.
B. Configure 10.0.0.1 on a loopback interface, and enable OSPF on that interface.
C. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a manual OSPF neighbor on each switch in the OSPF system.
D. Configure 10.0.0.1 as a secondary IP address on the switch 00BM poet.

Answer: B

Saturday, January 21, 2023

HPE2-N68 Using HPE Containers Exam Dumps Q&A Free Downloads

 

Exam ID : HPE2-N68
Exam type : Web based
Exam duration : 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length : 40 questions
Passing score : 70%
Delivery languages : English, Japanese, Korean
Supporting resources :  Using HPE Containers, Rev. 21.41
Additional study materials : Using HPE Containers Study Guide

Ideal candidateTypical candidates for this certification are HPE customers, partners, and employees who configure, implement, support, and use HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise solutions.
The minimally qualified candidate will have basic industry standard knowledge and skills related to containers. They will have some familiarity with the HPE product portfolio.

Exam contents
This exam has 40 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Read the entire question and consider all options before you answer. If the question includes an exhibit, study the exhibit and read the question again. Select the answer that fully responds to the question. If the question asks for more than one answer, select all correct answers. There is no partial credit.

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Exam policies
Click here to view exam security and retake policies.

This exam validates that you can describe, recommend, demonstrate, and configure HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise
solutions.

15% Explain foundational concepts necessary for understanding how the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform works
1.1 Explain container and container orchestration technologies
1.2 Explain big data technologies
1.3 Explain basic artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) concepts

33% Explain the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise model, features, and functions
2.1 Explain the benefits of the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform
2.2 Identify use cases and deployment options for the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform
2.3 Describe the HPE Ezmeral Runtime Enterprise Platform architecture and key features

21% Perform installation and setup processes
3.1 Plan for a successful installation
3.2 Perform the installation
3.3 Perform key setup tasks
3.4 Set up high availability

31% Configure various environments and demonstrate key capabilities
4.1 Create Kubernetes clusters and demonstrate deploying applications on them
4.2 Create EPIC clusters and demonstrate creating projects and running jobs on them
4.3 Monitoring and Alerting

QUESTION 1
What is one way that HPE Ezmeral ML Ops can help companies overcome their AI/ML challenges?

A. It enforces isolation between notebook environments and training environments.
B. It provides acceleration for machine learning algorithms to eliminate the need for CPUs.
C. It provides notebook and training environments with many AI/ML libraries and frameworks.
D. It provides a custom HPE Ezmeral library for deep learning and neural network algorithms.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company wants to use Ezmeral Data Fabric to provide storage to Kubernetes Tenants on HPE
Ezmeral Container Platform. What deployment option should you choose?

A. Enable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Create hybrid Kubernetes clusters that use Data Fabric and non-Data Fabric nodes.
B. Enable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Also create a dedicated Data Fabric Kubernetes cluster.
C. Disable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Create a dedicated Data Fabric Kubernetes cluster.
D. Disable the embedded Data Fabric during the controller install. Create hybrid Kubernetes clusters that use Data Fabric and non-Data Fabric nodes.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What Is a correct consideration for creating a Kubernetes Tenant on Ezmeral Container Platform?

A. When you select that the Tenant owns the Kubernetes namespace, Tenant Admins are given elevated access to the Kubernetes cluster.
B. When you set a quota for a resource, containers running on the Tenant are not allowed to request or use resources beyond that level.
C. You must manually create a namespace for the Tenant on the Kubernetes cluster before you create the Tenant.
D. When you set a quota for a resource, containers running on the Tenant are guaranteed up to that level.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is one requirement tor setting up Platform High Availability (HA)?

A. Gateway HA must be configured before you enable Platform HA.
B. The controller and the shadow controller must be on different subnets.
C. The controller and the gateway must be on the same subnet.
D. Any virtual clusters that have been created on EPIC workers must be deleted.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
For which use case should you enable Istlo on a Kubernetes cluster?

A. Connecting a KubeDirector cluster to external Kubernetes components such as secrets and config maps
B. Converting stateful applications such as Spark into a form that can run on Kubernetes
C. Training ML algorithms to perform complex tasks such as clustering andimage recognition
D. Creating more sophisticated routing rules for services running on the cluster

Answer: B

Thursday, January 19, 2023

HPE2-W07 HP Selling Aruba Products and Solutions Exam

 

Exam ID : HPE2-W07
Exam type : Web based
Exam duration : 1 hour 15 minutes
Exam length : 50 questions
Passing score : 70%
Delivery languages : Simplified Chinese, Korean, Japanese, German, Castilian Spanish, Brazilian Portuguese, English
Supporting resources : Selling Aruba Products and Solutions, Rev. 20.41 : Ideal candidateHPE Aruba channel partner sales professionals

Exam contents
This exam has 50 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

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Exam policies
Click here to view exam security and retake policies.
This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

7% Industry and Technology
Describe the transformation that is occurring at the network edge
Explain why customers need flexibility in the way they consume, manage, and fund IT services
Explain how the transformation at the edge provides opportunities for customers to improve their business outcomes

13% Aruba Vision and Strategy

Explain how Aruba’s edge-to-cloud strategy helps customers of all sizes create and deliver unique experiences, innovate products and services, and drive efficient operations
Describe how Aruba ESP's 4 attributes of AIOps, Zero Trust Security, Unified Infrastructure and As-a-Service help enterprise and mid-sized organizations drive new business outcomes

10% Financial and Consumption Flexibility
Demonstrate to your customers that you understand why organizations are moving toward as-a-Service consumption models
Describe Aruba ESP as-a-Service solutions and the benefits these services offer Aruba customers and partners
Engage your customers with a value-oriented approach to have more effective sales conversations

10% Aruba Cloud Solutions
Explain the benefits Aruba Cloud Strategy offers mid-market and enterprise customers
Explain the competitive advantages the Aruba Cloud Strategy gives you as an Aruba Partner
Explain how Aruba Central features and solutions enable the Aruba Cloud Strategy

10% Aruba AIOps
Describe how Aruba AIOps differentiates Aruba in the marketplace
Explain how Aruba AIOps helps organizations redefine outcomes so they can deliver unique user experiences and innovative products and services
Explain key use cases for Aruba AIOps and position the appropriate solutions for a particular use case

10% Aruba Zero Trust Security
Describe how Aruba Zero Trust Security differentiates Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba Zero Trust Security protects organizations from the edge to the cloud, identifying every user and device connected to the network, and implementing granular controls
Explain key use cases for Aruba Zero Trust Security and position the appropriate solutions for a particular use case

13% Aruba Unified Infrastructure—Campus Access
Describe how Aruba campus solutions differentiate Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba’s solutions are built on a single architecture that is designed to deliver a consistent experience across wired and wireless
Explain key use cases for Aruba Unified Infrastructure and position the appropriate campus solutions for a particular use case

10% Aruba Unified Infrastructure—Data Center
Describe how Aruba Data Center solutions differentiate Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba Data Center solutions automate management, monitoring, and optimization
Explain key use cases for Aruba Unified Infrastructure in the data center and position solutions for particular use cases
Describe the high-level competitive landscape and explain how Aruba partners can win with Aruba Data Center solutions

10% Aruba Unified Infrastructure—SD-Branch
Describe how Aruba SD-Branch solutions differentiate Aruba in the marketplace
Describe how Aruba Unified Infrastructure simplifies management and improves connectivity for distributed networks
Explain key use cases for Aruba Unified Infrastructure and position Aruba SD-Branch solutions for a particular use case
Describe the high-level competitive landscape and explain how Aruba Partners can win with Aruba SD-Branch solutions

7% Aruba Small Business Solutions
Describe the unique needs of customers in the small business market
Describe Aruba’s Instant On portfolio and how it meets the unique needs of small businesses
Position the appropriate Aruba solutions for a particular small business use case
Describe the high-level competitive landscape and explain how you can win with the Aruba Small Business portfolio

QUESTION 1
A customer asks what you mean when you say that Aruba Zero Trust Security provides "contextbased" access policies. What should you explain?

A. The solution can give different access rights to the same user based on additional factors, such as device type, time, and location.
B. The wizard for creating access policies shows different views based on whether a business user or technical user is creating the policy.
C. The access policies are customized through a CLl, which creates a different CU "context" per custom access control policy.
D. The solution's access control capabilities depend on the ClearPass Policy Manager licensing level that the customer chooses.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is one business benefit that Aruba Al insights helps customers to achieve?

A. Providing location services to improve the user experience
B. Reducing help desk tickets and time spent on troubleshooting issues that can hamper a business
C. Automatically profiling loT devices for better inventory
D. Enabling BYOD with a self-service portal for device provisioning

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Where do analysts predict the majority of data will be generated by 2022?

A. The public cloud
B. On-prem data centers
C. Co-located data centers
D. The edge

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two key opportunities does Aruba recommend that you pursue to sell Aruba Unified Infrastructure in the campus?

A. 25GDE campus edge upgrades and 100GbE core upgrades
B. WI-FI 6 upgrades and transitions to Aruba ESP (Edge Services Platform)
C. Security overhauls and software-defined networking (SON) deployments
D. Firewall integrations and OWE deployments

Answer: A

Wednesday, January 18, 2023

ITIL-4-Transition PeopleCert ITIL 4 Managing Professional Transition Exam

 

ITIL® 4 Managing Professional Transition
Designed for candidates who have already invested in ITIL v3, the ITIL 4 Managing Professional Transition module provides a straight-forward transition path across to ITIL 4.

The Transition module enables candidates to gain the up-to-date skills and knowledge needed to navigate the digital service economy, whilst recognising their previous achievements. It consists of a mandatory 5-day training and exam at the end of the course. Successful candidates are awarded the ITIL 4 Managing Professional designation.

The Transition module covers the key concepts introduced in ITIL 4 Foundation, as well as important elements of the below modules from ITIL 4 Managing Professional:
ITIL 4 Specialist Create, Deliver and Support
ITIL 4 Specialist Drive Stakeholder Value
ITIL 4 Specialist High Velocity IT
ITIL 4 Strategist Direct Plan and Improve.

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To qualify for the transition module, candidates need to hold ITIL v3 Expert or a minimum of 17 credits from ITIL v3 qualifications.
Important Notice: Accredited training for the ITIL Managing Professional modules is mandatory to enable full understanding of the core material. Accredited training can only be purchased as part of a package that includes the exam. All modules have ITIL 4 Foundation as a pre-requisite.
NOTE: This module in English has been discontinued on 30 September 2022, and this module in German will be discontinued on 31 March 2023. After that date, this module will only be available in Japanese. Candidates who want to start their ITIL 4 journey should first ITIL 4 Foundation.

Find out more about the PeopleCert examination process
Take your exam of your comfort of exam or office. Learn more about PeopleCert Online Proctoring, the secure and stress-free way to sit your exam. Get the Step-by-Step Guidelines on how to take your online exam with PeopleCert Online Proctoring here.

What else is included in my exam purchase:
1 month free MyAxelos subscription: MyAxelos is PeopleCert's exclusive membership programme that helps you prepare for your exam and continuously stay up to date with the ITIL and ProPath frameworks.

Inside MyAxelos, you will find:
Industry news and best practices, articles and white papers by subject-matter experts
Case studies focusing on industry leaders and best practices
Exam preparation materials, exam guidance videos, and certified expert content
Digital badges to share your achievement with the world
Tools that help you keep your certificate valid

Above all MyAxelos is a thriving and supportive community of industry professionals ready to provide networking opportunities and insightful career development advice. Learn more here.

PREREQUISITES
BOOKING AN EXAM WHERE PREREQUISITES APPLY
Please ensure that before you book an exam where a prerequisite is required, you hold verified proof of completion of that prerequisite (i.e. certificate, or letter from AXELOS or former Examination Institute confirming you hold a current certification). Your examination results will be withheld until the correct prerequisite is provided to PeopleCert. If you are unable to provide the required prerequisite, then you will need to successfully complete the prerequisite before the higher-level exam result is released.

ITIL® Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
Training through an Accredited Training Organisation
A minimum of 15 credits
Training through an Accredited Training Organisation
ITIL® Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
ITIL® Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
Training through an Accredited Training Organisation

QUESTION 1
An organization's lead times and the flow of tasks across value streams are being impacted because tasks often sit waiting in queues.
Which technique can be used to overcome this challenge?

A. Clarifying definition of done'
B. Introducing a push system
C. Increasing batch sizes
D. Limiting work-in-progress

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which value chain activity ensures that products deliver stakeholder expectations for quality?

A. Design and transition
B. Engage
C. Obtain/build
D. Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An organization is undergoing a significant cultural change as a result of introducing Agile and DevOps practices.
How can managers use Toyota Kata to help employees adjust to these different ways of working?

A. By encouraging the practicing of routines to unlearn old habits and learn new ones
B. By creating detailed plans that predetermine how to approach large changes
C. By making hard decisions for the teams and providing step-by-step guidance
D. By encouraging widespread changes that involve the teams starting from scratch

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statement about user communities is CORRECT?

A. User communities are created by service providers to investigate the cause of problems
B. Communities set up by users may be recognized and supported by service providers
C. Informal user communities should be disbanded and merged into official groups
D. Every user community should have at least one super-user

Answer: B

Monday, January 16, 2023

P_SECAUTH_21 SAP Certified Technology Professional - System Security Architect Exam

 

SAP Certified Technology Professional - System Security Architect
Sub-solution: Administration
Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Professional
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 66%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English

Description
The "SAP Certified Technology Professional - System Security Architect" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the depth of knowledge required in the areas of SAP System Security and Authorization. This certificate proves that the candidate has an advanced understanding within the Technology Consultant profile and is able to apply these skills practically and provide guidance in SAP project implementations in the role of a SAP Security Architect. Furthermore, the holder of this certification is capable to review and evaluate the security level of complex on-premise, cloud and hybrid system architectures.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test and there will be no access to online documentation or to any SAP system.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

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Authorization Concept for SAP S/4HANA > 12%
Describe and implement the authorization concept for SAP S/4HANA 
ADM945
----- OR -----
TSEC10

Authorization, Security and Scenarios in SAP HANA > 12%
Explain authorization, security and scenarios in SAP HANA
HA940 (SAP HANA 2.0 SPS05)

SAP Netweaver Application Server and Infrastructure Security > 12%
Describe and implement security in a SAP NetWeaver Application Server and related infrastructure components
ADM900
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)
----- OR -----
TSEC10
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)

Security Monitoring and Security Auditing > 12%
Monitor security and troubleshoot security issues using Solution Manager, security audits, traces and logs.
ADM900
ADM950 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)
----- OR -----
TSEC10
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)

Authorization Concept for SAP Business Suite 8% - 12%
Describe and implement the authorization concept for SAP Business Suite 
ADM940 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
----- OR -----
TSEC10

Secure an SAP System 8% - 12%
Explain how to secure an SAP system and conduct security checks
ADM900
ADM950 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)
----- OR -----
TSEC10
ADM960 (SAP NETWEAVER 7.55)

SAP Cloud Platform Security 8% - 12%
Explain security and scenarios in SAP Cloud platform
SECCL1 (SAP S/4HANA 2020)

Access Governance and Compliance in SAP < 8%
Describe the security goals, data privacy goverance, access goverance solutions and tools in SAP.
ADM900
ADM910 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
----- OR -----
TSEC10
User Administration and Identity Lifecycle Management in SAP < 8%
Manage users in SAP systems
ADM900
ADM940 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
ADM910 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
----- OR -----
TSEC10
General Information

Exam Preparation 
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.
 

QUESTION 1
User1 grants role 1 to user2. Who can revoke role 1 role from user2?

A. The system OBA user
B. The owner of role 1
C. Only User1
D. Any user with the 'ROLE ADMIN' database role

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Why should you create multiple dispatchers in SAP Identity Management? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. To accommodate scalability
B. To support fail-over scenarios
C. To handle password provisioning
D. To handle special network access requirements

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 3
What is required when you configure the PFCG role for an end-user on the front-end server?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The catalog assignment for the start authorization
B. The S_RFC authorization object for the OData access
C. The Fiori Launchpad designer assignment
D. The group assignment to display it in the Fiori Launchpad

Answer: A, D

QUESTION 4
In your system, you have a program which calls transaction
A. Users with access to this program can still execute transaction A without explicit authorizations
given to this transaction. How do you prevent the access of users to the transaction A from within the program?

A. Make sure you do NOT assign transact on A to the authorization object S_TCODE in the role that you assign to the unauthorized users.
B. Maintain SE93 with authorization objects for transact on A.
C. Maintain the check indicator in table TCDCOUPLES
D. Ensure that transact on A is NOT assigned into the same program authorization group

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The SSO authentication using X.509 client certificates is configured. Users complain that they can't
log in to the back-end system. The trace file shows the following error message: "HTTP request
[2] Reject untrusted forwarded certificate". What is missing in the configuration? Note: There are
2 correct answers to this question.

A. On the back-end, the profile parameter icm/HTTPS/verify client must NOT be set to 0
B. On the web-dispatcher, the SAPSSLS.pse must be signed by a trusted certification authority
C. On the web-dispatcher, the profile parameter icm/HTTPS/verify_client must be set to 0
D. The web dispatcher's SAPSSLC.PSE certificate must be added to the trusted reverse proxies list in icm/trusted_reverse_proxy_<xx>

Answer: A, B


Sunday, January 15, 2023

C_MDG_1909 SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Master Data Governance Exam

 

SAP Certified Application Associate - Master Data Governance
Sub-solution: Master Data Governance
Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Sample Questions: View more
Cut Score: 59%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: German, English

Description
The SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Master Data Governance certification exam validates that the candidate possesses the fundamental and core knowledge required of the application consultant profile. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of a project team in a mentored role. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification.

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Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

MDG Overview and Architecture > 12%
Provide an overview of the SAP Master Data Governance solution and it's technical components. Describe the SAP Master Data Governance architecture, execute data modeling and change request capabilities.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Consolidation and Mass Processing > 12%
Implement SAP Master Data Governance consolidation by defining the usage of match groups, scoring and best records calculations, and analytics. Define mass processing scope and processing.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Domain Specific Capabilities > 12%
Use Financial domain-specifica capabilities to trigger and monitor replication of financial master data. Describe and apply the Business Partner Model. Verify and adjust the Material Data Model, configure SAP Master Data Governance-Material domain specific settings, and define multi-object processing.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

MDG Change Request process implementation 8% - 12%
Define the Change Request process including workflow setup.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Data Quality & Analytics 8% - 12%
Implement data validation through configuration of search, activation of side panel, and analytics.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Data replication and key mapping 8% - 12%
Configure, execute, and monitor data replication.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Custom Objects and Solution Extensions 8% - 12%
Extend and define your own Data Models, and use Solution Extensions by Utopia.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

MDG Project Execution < 8%
Activate SAP Master Data Governance and define customizing exchange for typical MDG landscapes.
MDG200 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

Data Load and Import < 8%
Define data download, upload, and importing.
MDG100 (SAP S/4HANA 1909)

General Information

Exam Preparation 
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1
What are the advantages of HANA-Based Search in MDG?

A. The user can choose their own search provider.
B. Fuzzy search is supported.
C. Duplication detection is based on SAP HANA.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION 2
What are the configuration options for search providers?

A. ES: Provider for Enterprise Search
B. AD: Provider for address search based on BAS-DES
C. DB: Provider for database search
D. The Fuzzy Search Using Addresses link is not available by default in the work center in SAP Portal or in SAP NetWeaver Business Client.
E. Free Text: Provider supports free-text search and MDG displays a corresponding field in the UI
F. Fuzzy: Provider supports error-tolerant search and MDG display

Answer: A, B, C, E, F

QUESTION 3
As the figure, Duplicate Check “ Configuration, shows, in this Customizing activity,
you configure the duplicate check for an entity type.
On the basis of a data model (for example BP or MM) you define which search mode the
system must use and which thresholds (in percentages) are to apply, which of the meets of criteria?

A. Records with a matching score lower than the low threshold are not regarded as duplicates.
B. Records with a matching score between the defined low and high thresholds are regarded as potential duplicates.
C. Records with a matching score higher than the high threshold are not allowed by the system, because they are regarded as duplicates.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A, B, C

QUESTION 4
What are the major enhancements in generic search?

A. The data model and entity type can be selected directly (this can also be preset by customizing or configuration).
B. For edition-based data, validity time can be used as search criteria, and is displayed in the result list.
C. The result list is more versatile. For example, you can filter by value, or personalize it.
D. FPM-based customizing and configuration are available.
E. Their visibility depends on customizing and selected entity type.

Answer: A, B, C, D

QUESTION 5
In detail in the function: Based on the generated BRF + rules, you use derivatives in MDG applications
to prefix prices based on the current state of Master Data Objects and / or change request properties.
area This prediction is made possible by what applications:

A. BRF + derivative works
B. To deal with business deviation, complex deviation and cross-unit derivatives
C. Reduction of manual correction work due to “First Time Right” data entry
D. More automation in reconciliation of charts of accounts across multiple ledgers

Answer: A, B

Friday, January 13, 2023

500-445 Cisco Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email Exam

 

500-445 CCECE
Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email v1.0 (500-445)

Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Associated certification Advanced Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of deploying and administering Cisco Enterprise Chat and Email (ECE).

Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email (CCECE)


Exam preparation
Official Cisco training

Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email (CCECE)
Exam Description: Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email v1.0 (CCECE 500-445) exam is associated with the Advanced Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization requirements for Deployment Engineers. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of deploying and administering Cisco Enterprise Chat and Email (ECE). The course Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Chat and Email helps candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

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40% 1.0 ECE Deployment
1.1 Describe Enterprise Chat and Email Components and Deployment Model
1.2 Explain ECE Installation process
1.3 Define ECE Best Practices
1.4 Prepare PCCE for ECE and Integration

20% 2.0 ECE Administration and Configuration

2.1 Explain ECE Administration Tasks
2.2 Configure ECE
2.3 Explain ECE Queues

10% 3.0 ECE Email Administration
3.1 Explain ECE Email Administration
3.2 Describe Workflows
3.3 Explain CCE Scripting for Email and Storage Management

10% 4.0 ECE Chat Administration
4.1 Configure ECE for Chat
4.2 Describe Chat Entry Points
4.3 Explain Chat Operation and Chat Customization

20% 5.0 ECE Features and Troubleshooting
5.1 Describe ECE Report types
5.2 Explain Agent Single Sign-on for ECE
5.3 Troubleshoot ECE
 

QUESTION 1
How is Chat Watchdog Interval used?

A. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if an agent could not accept it
B. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if it could not get any response from UCCE
C. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if it could not be routed to UCCE
D. to control the time interval after which a chat activity is tagged as abandoned if it could not be assigned to an agent

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What are two specifications for reporting templates? (Choose two.)

A. The availability of templates is controlled by licenses.
B. A user can only create ten reports per template.
C. Only one report can be created per template.
D. Any number of reports can be created from a template.
E. Templates can be deleted.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION 3
What is the limit of concurrent agents per application server?

A. 400
B. 600
C. 1200
D. 1800

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
In which two ways are chats transferred? (Choose two.)

A. Only open chat activities in which the customer has not left the chat session can be transferred.
B. Chats can be transferred to departments directly.
C. Agents can transfer the chat activities based on the Maximum Task limit setting.
D. Agents have unlimited transfers of chat activity.
E. Only one chat activity can be transferred at a time.

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 5
Which LDAP URL allows configuration in the properties pane under SSO configuration?

A. Ldap://idap_server:3269
B. Ldap://idap_server:80
C. Ldap://idap_server:443
D. Ldap://idap_server:3268

Answer: B

Friday, January 6, 2023

2V0-33.22 VMware Cloud Professional Exam

 

The VMware Cloud Professional (2V0-33.22) which leads to VMware Certified Professional - VMware Cloud 2022 (VCP-VMC 2022) certification is a 70-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled scoring method. Candidates are given 135 minutes to complete the exam, which includes adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.
Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) can successfully identify the key components of a VMware Cloud solution and how to support migrations from an on-premises data center into VMware Cloud (across different hyperscaler partners including VMware Cloud on AWS). The successful candidate understands the networking requirements to support VMware Cloud use cases and the benefit of VMware Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG). The successful candidate also has a basic understanding of storage concepts, security, business continuity and disaster recovery, as well as monitoring and troubleshooting, in a VMware Cloud environment. The successful candidate possesses most of the knowledge in the exam blueprint sections detailed below and may need to research some topis and require occasional assistance in carrying out some tasks.

Products/Technologies
This exam validates breadth of knowledge of VMware Cloud across different hyperscalers including:
VMware Cloud on AWS
VMware Cloud on Dell EMC
VMware Cloud on AWS Outposts
Google Cloud VMware Engine
Azure VMware Solution

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning and Optimization
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

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Sections Included in this Exam
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Explain the benefits of cloud computing
Objective 1.2 –Describe the functional components of a VMware Cloud solution
Objective 1.3 – Differentiate between VMware Cloud connectivity options
Objective 1.4 – Describe a cloud network architecture
Objective 1.5 – Describe networking in the software-defined data center (SDDC)
Objective 1.6 – Describe VMware SDDC components
Objective 1.7 – Explain Hybrid Linked Mode for the VMware SDDC
Objective 1.8 – Describe virtual machine components
Objective 1.9 – Describe VMware vSphere vMotion and vSphere Storage vMotion technology
Objective 1.10 – Explain a high availability and resilient infrastructure
Objective 1.11 – Describe the different backup and disaster recovery options for VMware Cloud
Objective 1.12 – Explain scaling options in VMware Cloud environments
Objective 1.13 – Identify authentication options for the VMware Cloud Services Portal
Objective 1.14 – Describe the purpose of using Kubernetes
Objective 1.15 – Describe use cases for VMware Cloud on Dell EMC and VMware Cloud on AWS Outposts

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Describe the VMware Cloud operating model
Objective 2.2 – Identify the role of other cloud services
Objective 2.3 – Explain the VMware multi-cloud vision
Objective 2.4 – Identify the appropriate backup or disaster recovery method for VMware Cloud given a scenario
Objective 2.5 – Describe how VMware and its hyperscaler partners address IT challenges
Objective 2.6 – Recognize VMware Cloud use cases
Objective 2.7 – Describe the function of VMware HCX
Objective 2.8 – Explain the NSX architecture in VMware Cloud
Objective 2.9 – Explain the functions of Kubernetes components
Objective 2.10 – Describe the functions of VMware Tanzu products in Kubernetes life cycle management
Objective 2.11 – Explain Tanzu Kubernetes Grid concepts

Section 3 – Planning and Designing

Objective 3.1 – Understand configuration sizing requirements for a VMware Cloud SDDC
Objective 3.2 – Understand considerations for installing VMware Cloud on Dell EMC and VMware Cloud on AWS Outposts on-premises

Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 – Deploy and configure VMware HCX appliances
Objective 4.2 – Configure connectivity between clouds (VPN, AWS Direct Connect, VMware Managed Transit Gateway)
Objective 4.3 – Set up Hybrid Linked Mode using the VMware Cloud Gateway Appliance
Objective 4.4 – Deploy and configure cloud business continuity and disaster recovery (BC/DR) solutions
Objective 4.5 – Assess the requirements for cloud onboarding within a VMware single- or multi-cloud environment
Objective 4.6 – Assess the required account access and privileges for an SDDC deployment within a VMware single- or multi-cloud environment
Objective 4.7 – Understand the concept of different types of segments (compute and management)
Objective 4.8 – Understand hyperscaler networking considerations
Objective 4.9 – Understand the concept of dynamic SDDC scale-out
Objective 4.10 – Complete cluster operations

Section 5 – Performance-tuning and Optimization

Objective 5.1 – Determine networking performance
Objective 5.2 – Determine storage performance
Objective 5.3 – Optimize the guest OS configuration

Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 – Troubleshoot networking issues
Objective 6.2 – Troubleshoot internetworking
Objective 6.3 – Troubleshoot security
Objective 6.4 – Troubleshoot workloads
Objective 6.5 – Troubleshoot storage

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 – Create and manage user account and role permissions
Objective 7.2 – Create a content library
Objective 7.3 – Create and manage network segments
Objective 7.4 – Create and manage VM snapshots
Objective 7.5 – Monitor VMware NSX networking within VMware Cloud
Objective 7.6 – Determine the appropriate network connectivity option for connecting to and from VMware Cloud
Objective 7.7 – Recognize management and operational responsibilities in VMware Cloud on AWS
Objective 7.8 – Describe elements of the service management process
Objective 7.9 – Recognize update and upgrade responsibilities of various components for VMware Cloud on AWS

QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator is managing a container environment. The application team has complained that they need to manually restart containers in the event of a failure.
Which solution can the administrator implement to solve this issue?

A. Kubernetes
B. VMware vSphere High Availability
C. VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance
D. Prometheus

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the VMware Cloud on AWS Compute Gateway (CGW)?

A. A Tier-1 router that handles routing and firewalling for the VMware vCenter Server and other management appliances running in the software-defined data center (SDDC)
B. A Tier-1 router that handles workload traffic that is connected to routed compute network segments
C. A Tier-0 router that handles routing and firewalling for the VMware vCenter Server and other management appliances running in the software-defined data center (SDDC)
D. A Tier-0 router that handles workload traffic that is connected to routed compute network segments

Answer: B
Compute Gateway (CGW) The CGW is a Tier 1 router that handles network traffic for workload VMs connected to routed compute network segments. Compute gateway firewall rules, along with NAT
rules, run on the Tier 0 router. In the default configuration, these rules block all traffic to and from compute network segments (see Configure Compute Gateway Networking and Security).

QUESTION 3
A cloud administrator is managing a VMware Cloud on AWS environment connected to an onwww.
premises data center using IPSec VPN connection. The administrator is Informed of performance
issues with applications replicating data between VMware Cloud and the on-premises data center.
The total bandwidth used by this replication is 3.8 Gbps.
What should the administrator do to improve application performance?

A. Deploy VMware HCX.
B. Deploy AWS Direct Connect.
C. Deploy a layer 2 VPN connection.
D. Contact VMware support to request more bandwidth for IPSec VPN connection.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
With which solution is the cloud administrator interfacing when defining storage policies in a VMware Cloud software-defined data center (SDDC)?

A. VMware Virtual Volumes (vVols)
B. VMware vSAN
C. iSCSI
D. VMware Virtual Machine File System (VMFS)

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When configuring Hybrid Linked Mode, what is the maximum supported latency between an on premises environment and a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC)?

A. 200 milliseconds round trip
B. 250 milliseconds round trip
C. 150 milliseconds round trip
D. 100 milliseconds round trip

Answer: D
Hybrid Linked Mode can tolerate a time skew of up to ten minutes between the on-premises data center and the cloud SDDC. The maximum latency between your cloud SDDC and on-premises data center cannot exceed 100 msec roundtrip.

Thursday, January 5, 2023

Scrum Certified SAFe Lean Portfolio Manager Exam Dumps

 

Detail
When you are ready to take the exam, log into the SAFe Community Platform to access the exam.
When the exam timer ends, the exam will be submitted, regardless of the number of questions answered. A score will be calculated based on the number of questions answered. Unanswered questions will be automatically marked as incorrect. If you finish answering all questions before the exam timer ends, you can click the “Submit” button and your score will be calculated.

When you launch the exam, you will be required to review and accept the Candidate Agreement before starting the exam. Exams are timed and the timer will be visible throughout the exam.
Questions are structured in multiple choice or multiple response format.

Questions will require either one answer or multiple. “Choose two” or a “Choose three” style multiple response questions indicate the number of answers required for the question. Multiple response questions require all correct answers to be selected as no partial credit is given.

Duration : 90 minutes
Number of questions : 45
Passing score : 32/45 (71%)
Competency level : Foundational difficulty; Competent, some knowledge or experience; can perform tasks with assistance
Question format : Multiple choice (one answer) or multiple select (2-3 answers)
Delivery : Web-based, closed book, no outside assistance, timed
Access : Community Platform upon completion of the course
Languages offered : English, Japanese (5.1.2), Simplified Chinese (5.1.2)
First attempt included in the course registration fee if taken within 30 days of course completion.

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Exam Sections and Percentages
Introducing Lean Portfolio Management (16%)
Discuss the purpose of SAFe Lean Portfolio Management
Explain the Lean-Agile mindset and SAFe principles
Discuss the problems of project-cost accounting
Discuss the key benefits of organizing around value
Define the SAFe portfolio structure
Explain the shift to Lean Portfolio Management

Establishing strategy and investment funding (16%)
Connect the portfolio to the Enterprise strategy
Develop the Portfolio Vision
Develop the Portfolio Roadmap
Discuss how to execute the Strategic Portfolio Review

Realizing portfolio vision through Epics (13%)
Define Portfolio Epics
Estimate Epic Costs
Manage innovation through the SAFe Lean Startup Cycle

Establishing investment funding (16%)
Establish Lean Budget Guardrails
Establish Value Stream budgets

Managing portfolio flow (16%)
Establish flow with the Portfolio Kanban
Prioritize Epic implementation with WSJF

Applying Agile portfolio operations (13%)
Describe Value Stream coordination
Support program execution and foster operational excellence

Applying Lean governance (10%)
Measure Lean portfolio performance
Discuss the Portfolio Sync
Explore coordinating continuous compliance
Relate Technology Business Management to SAFe LPM
Explain Agile development software capitalization

Question: 1
Which of the following artifacts contains the steps and the people who develop solutions used by operational value streams?

A. Operational value streams
B. Portfolio Road map
C. Development value streams
D. Portfolio Canvas
E. Strategic Themes

Answer: C

Question: 2
Which Portfolio investment Horizon usually consumes the majority of a portfolio budget?

A. Horizon 1
B. Horizon 2
C. Horizon 3
D. Horizon 0

Answer: A

Question: 3
Which of the following Events is not an LPM event? (Choose three)

A. I&A
B. Strategic Portfolio Review
C. Participatory Budgeting
D. IP Iteration
E. ART Lunch
F. Portfolio Sync

Answer: A,D,E

Question: 4
When applying WSJF technique, which of the following is considered as a good proxy for project duration

A. The Job Size
B. The Cost of Delay
C. The Time Criticality
D. The WIP limit
E. The user Business value

Answer: A

Question: 5
Which if the following roles has a key roles in lean governance? (Choose three)

A. Solution Management
B. Business Owners
C. Enterprise Architect
D. Solution Train Engineer
E. Solution Architect/Engineer
F. Agile PMO / LACE

Answer: B,C,F

Wednesday, January 4, 2023

DASM Disciplined Agile Scrum Master Exam

 

DASM Disciplined Agile Scrum Master Exam

Online Learning Course
Self-paced online learning
9 modules totaling up to 14 hours
Learn on any device
Access to Disciplined Agile tool kit and digital version of the Choose Your WoW book

Do you find yourself...
Facing an ever-changing environment?
Using a framework of steps that makes no sense?
Feeling your agile practice doesn’t deliver what it should?

The DASM certification equips you to successfully lead agile teams, thereby future-proofing your career in a world in which agile is fast becoming the way forward. The Disciplined Agile® tool kit includes hundreds of proven practices, including Scrum, Kanban, SAFe®, and even some predictive approaches, and puts them into context.

By taking the course — and becoming DASM certified — you’ll understand how to customize your way of working to the approach that makes sense for the situation you face in your organization and industry.

What You Will Learn
Grasp the fundamentals of agile and lean, and how you can practically use both approaches to produce value for your teams.
Explore multiple agile and lean techniques from methods such as Scrum, Kanban, SAFe®, and more.
Understand how to put these techniques into practice and ensure successful agile implementation.
Appreciate the DA™ mindset and its underlying principles, such as pragmatism, the power of choice, and adapting to context.
Learn how to apply the Disciplined Agile tool kit to discover the most effective way of working (WoW) for you, and your team in your unique situation.

Course Outline
All about Agile
Agile and beyond
Building and supporting a Disciplined Agile team
Choosing your way of working (WoW)
Initiating your team: Tailoring a fit-for-purpose WoW
Building a solution: Tailoring a fit-for-purpose WoW
Deploying your solution: Tailoring a fit-for-purpose WoW
Ensuring that your team improves, succeeds, and has fun doing so on an ongoing basis
Influence outside the team

Requirements
None. This course is for people who are new to Agile. 

If you are completely unfamiliar with Agile then we suggest that you watch our free 45-minute video, Basics of Scrum.

How it Works
Take an instructor-led training or self-paced online course.
Complete the course to receive your DASM exam invitation. You will have 60 days to take the exam (fee is included in tuition).
After passing the exam, you will receive your badge and certification.
The certification is valid for one year and can be renewed upon expiry.

Examination Content Outline
The following table identifies the proportion of questions from each domain that will appear on the examination.
1 Foundations of Agile 30%
2 Foundations of Lean 20%
3 Foundations of Disciplined Agile 24%
4 Choose y our WoW 26%
TOTAL : 100%

1 Foundations of Agile 30%
1.1 Understand the Agile mindset
1.2 Differentiate between the iterative ceremonies
1.3 Define user stories

2 Foundations of Lean 20%
2.1 Understand the principles of Lean
2.2 Recognize how to optimize lean delivery
2.3 Describe how to learn pragmatically
2.4 Understand the team

3 Foundations of Disciplined Agile 24%
3.1 Understand the Disciplined Agile mindset
3.2 Identify the value proposition of DA
3.3 List and describe the 8 principles of DA and when to use them
3.4 Classify the DA life cycles and phases
3.5 Classify the DA roles within a self-organizing team
3.6 Identify goals using the DA toolkit

4 Choose your WoW 26%
4.1 Distinguish how people are organized within DA teams
4.2 Select your team’s way of working

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QUESTION 1
Push is when work is:

A. Expedited to meet a deadline.
B. Delayed until later.
C. Given to people.
D. Outsourced to a vendor.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Push and pull are techniques of working

QUESTION 2
How should iterations for an agile project be planned?

A. Throughout the project by using iteration reviews to continuously improve quality.
B. Iteratively by the product owner to ensure global optimization.
C. At the beginning of each iteration by pulling from product backlog.
D. At the retrospective meetings to ensure nothing is missed from one iteration to the next.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are the eight principles of Disciplined Agile?

A. Customer Satisfaction, Market Awareness, Be Awesome, Pragmatism, Quick Decisions, Fail Fast, Choice is Good, Customer Satisfaction.
B. Delight Customers, Be Awesome, Pragmatism, Context Counts, Choice Good, Optimize Flow, Enterprise Awareness, Organize around products/services.
C. Customer Satisfaction, Market Awareness, Be Awesome, Pragmatism, Context Counts, Minimize Cost, Choice is Good, Use Logic.
D. Delight Customers, Be Awesome, Use Logic, Fail Fast, Enterprise Awareness, Optimize Process, Choice is Good, Organize around products/services.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In fact, the DA tool kit has always been a hybrid of great strategies from the very beginning, with the focus being on how all of these strategies fit together in practice. (Choose Your WoW, We Believe in These Principles, page 24).

QUESTION 4
Identify three principles of the Disciplined Agile mindset. (Choose three)

A. Delight customers.
B. Accelerate delivery.
C. Enterprise awareness.
D. Be a servant leader.
E. Be pragmatic.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
(Choose Your WoW, The Disciplined Agile Mindset, page 23).

QUESTION 5
Which is not a feature of a user story?

A. Testable
B. Estimable
C. Negotiable
D. Achievable

Answer: D

Explanation:
One or two sentences to describe something of value to a user [W, ObjectPrimer]. (Choose Your WoW, Explore Usage, page 139)

Monday, January 2, 2023

PSPO-I Professional Scrum Product Owner I Exam

 

How To Pass The Professional Scrum Product Owner I (PSPO I) Assessment From Scrum.org

Prove Your Knowledge of Product Ownership
The Professional Scrum Product Owner (PSPO I) certification validates your knowledge of the Scrum framework and your ability to support and enable value creation and delivery. Earning PSPO I shows your understanding of how to bridge the gap between strategy and agile product management in order to create valuable products using Scrum.

While attendance is not a prerequisite, the Professional Scrum Product Owner course is highly recommended. PSPO I ensures you have a fundamental understanding of the accountabilities of the Product Owner. Many questions focus on the Product Owner accountabilities based on the Scrum Guide and also the application of Scrum based on your own experience.

PSPO I includes questions from the following Focus Areas as defined in the Professional Scrum Competencies.
Understanding and Applying the Scrum Framework:
Empiricism, Scrum Team, Events, Artifacts, Done
Developing People and Teams:
Self-Managing Teams
Managing Products with Agility:
Forecasting & Release Planning, Product Vision, Product Value, Product Backlog Management, Business Strategy, Stakeholders & Customers

Translation
Many people successfully use the Google Translate Plugin to take the test in their native language. If you plan to use the Google Translate Plugin you MUST follow these instructions for using the Google Translate Plugin. We cannot guarantee the quality of the translation, however feedback has been quite good.
Accommodations for Physical or Intellectual Disabilities

We take these considerations very seriously, and examine each case individually. Please contact support@scrum.org regarding your circumstances and we can advise you on next steps.

Certification Details
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 60 minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer, True/False
Free Credly digital credential included
Recommended course: Professional Scrum Product Owner
Practice assessments: Scrum Open and Product Owner Open
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only
Lifetime certification - no annual renewal fee required

Why Scrum.org
Unlike other Scrum certifications that are awarded for attendance in a class, earning a Scrum.org certification requires proof of knowledge and understanding by passing the certification test. You can take the Professional Scrum certification test whether you have attended a Scrum.org class or not, though each Scrum.org training class is a great learning experience and includes a free attempt at the associated certification.

Protecting the integrity of the certification process is very important to us. By taking a test with Scrum.org you agree to abide by our Standard of Conduct. You will not receive information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or incorrectly, however you will receive a breakdown of your performance based on the Professional Scrum Competencies.

Find out more about what makes Scrum.org different.

Professional Scrum Product Owner™ Training

In the Professional Scrum Product Owner course, explore and learn to apply the accountabilities of the Product Owner and the principles of Professional Scrum. Gain an understanding of the pivotal role the Product Owner plays in bridging strategy and agile product management in order to help the Scrum Team create valuable products.

Topic Details
Understanding and Applying the Scrum Framework

Empiricism
A cornerstone to Scrum and Agile. A practitioner will be able to apply the concepts of the empirical process to the problems they encounter. That means they can describe problems in terms of learning, break problems down into the smallest increments that will generate valuable evidence, and execute in an empirical way. By learning and practicing the skills in this Focus Area, a practitioner will become an expert in the application of scientific methods to complex problems, understanding why and how to apply an empirical process.

Roles
The three Scrum roles of Product Owner, Scrum Master, and Development Team Member form the foundation for clear responsibilities and focus. In this Focus Area, the practitioner will understand the roles, their responsibilities, and also how to instantiate these roles in existing or new job titles. They will be able to describe the implications of these roles as they apply to existing HR practices and as they apply to self-organization that is reinforced by the role separation.

Events
The Scrum framework describes 5 events: The Sprint, Sprint Planning, Daily Scrum, Sprint Review, and the Sprint Retrospective. All events are time-boxed and enable progress through adaptation and transparency. The practitioner will understand the events and be able to practice each event, but more importantly be able to apply these events in complex situations and at scale. The events are used to uphold empirical process control, through the three pillars of Scrum: transparency, inspection, and adaptation.

Artifacts
The Scrum framework describes 3 artifacts. The Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog, and Increment. These artifacts provide the team with a minimal set of materials to plan, execute, and review the Sprint. The Practitioner will understand these artifacts and how to implement them in complex, real-world situations. They will also understand the relationship of these artifacts relative to other practices and techniques and how to integrate them into an organization's own process.

Done
The objective of each Sprint is to deliver a “Done” product increment. The Definition of Done (DoD) provides a way for the team to make what “Done” means transparent. In this Focus Area, the practitioner will be able to describe what a DoD is, apply it to their particular context, and understand how the DoD can be visualized and communicated within the organization. They will also be able to describe the implications of the necessary trade-offs and compromises required to deliver “Done” Product Increments within their organization.

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Developing People and Teams

Self-Organizing Teams
A fundamental foundational element to Scrum; self-organizing and empowered teams are the engine to delivering value. Practitioners need to understand what self-organization is and how to apply it to their context. They should also understand how to incrementally introduce self-organization, the practices that can help self-organization occur, and the measures that help one judge if a team is able to be empowered to self-organize.

Facilitation
Making decisions, sharing ideas, and being transparent is easy to agree to, but in reality, it is hard to do. Facilitation is a set of practices that help support the collaboration, communication, and creativity of teams and individuals. The practitioner should understand the value of facilitation, and have a collection of techniques they can apply. They should also have experience applying them in different situations with varying levels of complexity.

Leadership Styles
There are many different leadership styles ranging from traditional ‘command and control’ to more collaborative or even Machiavellian. Understanding the right style to use at a given time and how different styles can influence - in a positive or negative way - the agile agenda of empiricism, empowerment, and improvement is a key Focus Area. Practitioners should understand the concepts of leadership styles and be able to apply a particular style when the situation calls for it. They should also be able to demonstrate their ability to decide on the right style and understand its impact on the organization.

Coaching and Mentoring
A key aspect of servant leadership is the ability to coach and mentor the organization, the team, and the business. The objective of coaching and mentoring is to help people get better at their work, deliver more value, or resolve a conflict or problem. The practitioner should be able to coach as well as mentor. They should understand different formal techniques and be able to apply those techniques in different complex situations.

Teaching
The ability to inspire others to learn and share information in an effective, repeatable, and efficient manner is a key aspect to any agile practitioners' skills. The practitioner should understand the value of teaching and appreciate the means of measuring the success of their teaching. They should understand different learning approaches and understand when to apply different techniques in different contexts.

Managing Products with Agility

Forecasting & Release Planning
Complex problems and the application of an empirical process requires a specific way of planning, estimating, and forecasting. Practitioners should be able to apply agile forecasting and release planning techniques, and understand the value of different approaches. They should understand which approaches work better in different situations. They should also understand how releases should be planned while dealing with complexity, dependencies, and value creation.

Product Vision
The Product Vision defines the purpose or goal that the product serves, and is defined by the “value” that the product strives to deliver. It should be the "true north" for the product and should not be affected by the day-to-day difficulties or challenges of delivery. The Product Vision only changes if the goal of the product changes, such as when a business pivot happens. Practitioners should be able to describe what a product vision is and what techniques should be employed to both build a vision and make it transparent. They should also understand how to use a Product Vision to drive strategy and execution, and how to build a vision that motivates, communicates, and provides constraints for delivery.

Product Value
The ultimate goal is to deliver value to the customer and stakeholders. But value is complex, made up of long-term and short-term impact, internal and external value, and indirect and direct value. The practitioner should be able to understand how to define value for context, and apply it to the work they and the team do. They should be able to manage others' understanding of value and apply different techniques and practices for defining, communicating and measuring value. They should understand the connection between value and empirical process, and how value should be the driving factor of the Product Vision.

Product Backlog Management
The Product Backlog is a key artifact within Scrum. It is an ordered list that describes what is needed in the product. The Product Backlog provides transparency into what is happening to the product for the team, organization, and stakeholders. The practitioner should be able to describe what a Product Backlog is and apply a variety of techniques for managing the backlog. They should also understand how to make the Product Backlog transparent and how to manage stakeholder expectations associated with the backlog.

Business Strategy
A product lives within the context of a business strategy. That strategy describes how the Product Vision will be executed in a broader context. A practitioner will understand techniques for exposing business strategy and show how it drives the product. They will understand approaches, such as Lean Startup and Design Thinking, and how those affect the flow of ideas from strategy to execution. They will understand how an empirical process affects the execution and feedback of a strategy.

Stakeholders & Customers
Effectively working with stakeholders and customers is a key skill for both the Product Owner and the Development Team. Scrum changes the nature of the interactions, encouraging more frequent collaboration and more open dialogue. The practitioner will understand the implication moving to an Agile approach will have to their stakeholders and customers and also become familiar with practices that will help them work and collaborate in a more agile way.

Both Scrum.org and veterans who’ve earned multiple certifications maintain that the best preparation for a Scrum.org PSPO I professional certification exam is practical experience, hands-on training and practice exam. This is the most effective way to gain in-depth understanding of Scrum.org PSPO 1 concepts. When you understand techniques, it helps you retain Scrum.org Professional Scrum Product Owner knowledge and recall that when needed.

QUESTION 1
What is the main reason for the Product Owner to be part of the Daily Scrum?

A. It is not required for the Product Owner to participate.
B. To assign the Developers the daily tasks.
C. To track the progress of the Project.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which Scrum accountabilities (roles = outdated term) have to attend the Daily Scrum?

A. The Scrum Master.
B. The Project Manager.
C. The Developers.
D. The Product Owner.
E. The Business Analyst.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What may happen if the Scrum Teams composition changes during the project?

A. The productivity will increase due to new ideas.
B. The roles are clearly defined - nothing will happen.
C. Often a short-term reduction in productivity can be seen.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes best the Sprint Review?

A. It is a meeting for the inspection of the Increment and to collect feedback.
B. It is a meeting to do the controlling and evaluation in regards to the developers work.
C. It is a formal meeting to receive the approval for the work that was done.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two of the following services are expected from a Scrum Master to a Product Owner.

A. The Scrum Master should help the Product Owner to find techniques for managing the Product Backlog.
B. The Scrum Master should help the Product Owner to do the documentation.
C. The Scrum Master should remove impediments for the Scrum Team (incl. Product Owner).
D. The Scrum Master should act as a "middleman" between the Product Owner and the Developers.

Answer: A,C