1V0-41.20 Associate VMware Network Virtualization Exam

 

EXAM NUMBER : 1V0-41.20
PRODUCT : NSX Datacenter
EXAM LANGUAGE : English
Associate Certifications : VCTA-NV 2021


Sections Included in the Exam
Section 1 -Architecture and Technologies
Objective 1.1: Identify the basic concepts of SDDC.
Objective 1.2: Identify how virtual networking addresses traditional networking challenges.
Objective 1.3: Identify the Software Defined Networking (SDN) building blocks.

Section 2 -VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1: Identify vSphere networking concepts.
Objective 2.2: Identify the VMware products that are part of the SDDC solution.
Objective 2.3: Identify the components of vSphere.
Objective 2.4: Identify the key features of vSphere
Objective 2.5: Given a use case, identify the product that supports the use case.
Objective 2.6: Given a use case, identify the benefits of NSX Data Center.
Objective 2.7: Identify how the high-level component of the NSX architecture interacts with the other high-level components.
Objective 2.8: Identify the roles of each of the high-level components of the NSX architecture.
Objective 2.9: Identify the functionality of the NSX-T features.

Section 3-Planning and Designing–There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 4 -Installing, Configuring, and Setup–There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 5 -Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades–There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 6 -Troubleshooting and Repairing–There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 7 -Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 -Given a scenario including a goal, identifyhow to use the NSX graphical user interface to achieve that goal.

Recommended Courses
VMware Network Virtualization: Core Technical Skills

QUESTION 1
Which plane in the NSX-T Data Center Architecture is used to create, read, update, and delete (CRUD) operations?

A. Local Control Plane (LCP)
B. Management Plane
C. Data Plane
D. Central Control Plane (CCP)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer needs to simplify application migration, workload rebalancing, and business continuity across data centers and clouds.
Which product can help?

A. vRealize Operations
B. NSX Cloud
C. VMware Carbon Black
D. VMware HCX

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning to upgrade hardware and needs to keep the virtual machines online during the process.
Which vSphere feature will allow this to occur?

A. vSphere Distributed Power Management
B. vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. vSphere High Availability
D. vSphere Motion

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
How are NSX managed compute endpoints called?

A. Transport Zone
B. vSphere Node
C. Transport Node
D. Compute Node

Correct Answer: C

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MB-910 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Customer Engagement Apps (CRM) (beta) Exam

 

This exam covers the features and capabilities of Microsoft Dynamics 365 customer engagement apps.

Candidates for this exam should have general knowledge of or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. They should also have a fundamental understanding of customer engagement principles and business operations.

Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance of beta exams.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Customer Engagement Apps (CRM)

Related exams: none

Important: See details

Go to Certification Dashboard

Exam MB-910: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Customer Engagement Apps (CRM) (beta)
Languages: English
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to describe the following: Dynamics 365 Marketing; Dynamics 365 Sales; Dynamics 365 Customer Service; Dynamics 365 Field Service; Project Operations; and shared features.

Skills measured
Describe Dynamics 365 Marketing (10-15%)
Describe Dynamics 365 Sales (15-20%)
Describe Dynamics 365 Customer Service (15-20%)
Describe Dynamics 365 Field Service (15-20%)
Describe Project Operations (15-20%)
Describe shared features (15-20%)

Audience Profile
This exam covers the features and capabilities of Microsoft Dynamics 365 customer engagement apps.
Candidates of this exam should have general knowledge of or relevant working experience in an Information Technology (IT) environment. They should also have a fundamental understanding of customer engagement principles and business operations.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Describe Dynamics 365 Marketing (10-15%)
Identify Dynamics 365 Marketing capabilities
 describe how to target customers by using segments and subscription lists
 describe the lead generation and qualification process including lead scoring
 describe customer journeys
 describe event management features and capabilities

Describe related marketing apps
 describe the capabilities of LinkedIn Campaign Manager
 describe the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Voice
 describe the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Customer Insights including audience insights and experience insights

Describe Dynamics 365 Sales (15-20%)
Describe the Dynamics 365 Sales lifecycle
 describe leads and the process for qualifying leads
 describe the opportunity management process
 describe the quote lifecycle
 describe use cases for orders and invoices
 describe processes and tools used for forecasting sales

Describe related sales apps
 describe capabilities of Dynamics 365 Sales Insights
 describe capabilities of LinkedIn Sales Navigator

Describe Dynamics 365 Customer Service (15-20%)
Describe Dynamics 365 Customer Service components
 describe cases, queues, and entitlements
 describe Knowledge Management
 describe service-level agreements (SLAs)

Describe related customer service apps
 describe Omnichannel for Customer Service
 describe Connected Customer Service
 describe Customer Service Insights

Describe Dynamics 365 Field Service (15-20%)
Describe the work order lifecycle
 describe the lifecycle of a work order including work order creation
 describe sources for work orders including cases, opportunities, IoT device sensor alerts, and agreements
 describe capabilities for the Inspections feature

Describe scheduling capabilities
 describe resource management capabilities including skills, and proficiency models
 identify available Universal Resource Scheduling (URS) scheduling options including

Schedule Assistant, Resource Schedule Optimization (RSO), and geolocation for technicians
 describe how Dynamics 365 Field Service uses artificial intelligence (AI) to help organizations become more efficient

Describe inventory and asset management capabilities
 describe inventory management transaction types
 describe customer asset management and preventive maintenance processes
 describe options for performing proactive customer asset maintenance by implementing IoT

Describe Project Operations (15-20%)
Identify Project Operations capabilities
 describe project components including contracts, stages, assignments, and fixed price versus time and material estimates versus retainer contracts
 identify views and reports that aid a project service company in making decisions

Describe project sales capabilities
 describe the process for converting leads into projects
 describe opportunity management and quote management for project-based and product-based quotes
 describe use cases for project contracts

Describe project planning and resource management capabilities
 describe allocation methods, tasks, subtasks, and assignments
 describe time and expenses entry, and entry approvals
 describe resource skills and proficiency models
 identify Interactive Gantt charts, Kanban boards, Resource Utilization boards, and Schedule boards

Describe shared features (15-20%)
Identify common customer engagement features
 describe customers and activities
 describe the product catalog
 describe price lists, discounts, and currencies
 describe cases
 describe resources

Describe reporting capabilities
 describe built-in reporting capabilities including dashboards, charts, views, and Report Wizard
 describe options for exporting data to Microsoft Excel
 describe options for analyzing data by using Power BI

Describe integration options
 describe Microsoft Teams integration capabilities
 describe use cases for integrating with Microsoft Excel and Microsoft Word
 describe options for managing documents by using SharePoint Online
 describe email integration capabilities

QUESTION 1
Which two components are included in Dynamics 365 Marketing? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Customer Voice survey
B. Customer Service Hub
C. Enterprise Asset Management
D. Event management

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
A company integrates LinkedIn Campaign Manager with Dynamics 365 Marketing.
Which two actions can the company perform using out-of-the-box features? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Generate leads from LinkedIn.
B. Create email templates for LinkedIn messages.
C. Schedule and publish social posts.
D. Create and publish events on LinkedIn.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
A company organizes and runs conferences and other events. The company is considering using Dynamics 365 Marketing.
The company wants to ensure that they can implement key marketing features without requiring any customizations.
Which three capabilities does Dynamics 365 Marketing support using out-of-the-box functionality? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Sponsors and sponsorships
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Advertisers and print media and campaigns
D. Session and speaker tracking
E. Registration and attendance

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
A potential customer delays their decision to commit to a big multi-year contract.
You want to find other colleagues who have interacted with the potential customer to discuss strategies.
Which app should you recommend?

A. Customer Service Insights
B. Market Insights
C. Power Virtual Agents
D. Sales Insights

Correct Answer: D

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500-601 Application Centric Infrastructure Support Representative

 

QUESTION 1
Which option describes the correct sequence to discover an ESX server in the fabric without a blade switch or multiple Layer 2 hops?

A. The leaf sends LLDP/CDP to the ESX, the ESX sends parsed UDP/CDP information to the vCenter, the AP1C
receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter, and the APIC downloads the policy for VMs behind the ESX to the leaf node.
B. The APIC downloads the policy for VMs behind ESX to the leaf node, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the ESX, the
ESX sends parsed LLDP/CDP information to the vCenter, and the APIC receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter.
C. The ESX sends parsed LLDP/CDP information to the vCenter, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the ESX, the APIC
downloads the policy for VMs behind the ESX to the leaf node, and the APIC receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter.
D. The ARC receives LLDP/CDP information from the vCenter, the APIC downloads policy for VMs behind ESX to the
leaf node, the leaf sends LLDP/CCP to the ESX, and the ESX sends parsed LLDP/CDP information to the vCenter.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which three statements about fitter and contract are true? (Choose three.)

A. A contract can be consumed and provided by as many EPGs as are needed by the network design.
B. A fitter can be used by multiple contracts.
C. A fitter contains groups of IP subnet
D. A contract can be consumed by a single EPG
E. A contract can be provided by a single EPG
F. A filter contains EtherType, IP protocol, TCP flags, and Layer 4 ports.

Answer: A,B,F

QUESTION 3
In the Cisco Nexus 9508 chassis, how many Broadcom T2 ASICs are on the fabric module?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true'? (Choose two.)

A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain.
B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for forwarding.
C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN.
D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood.
E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 5
Which messaging protocol is used by the vPC peers to communicate with each other?

A. LLDP
B. CFS
C. ZMQ
D. VPCT

Answer: D

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H13-612 HCNA - Storage (HCNA-Storage-BSSN) V3.0 Exam

 

QUESTION 1
When configuring an N8500 clustered NAS engine, a user must specify the start and end physical IP addresses and the start and end virtual IP addresses,

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about N8500 troubleshooting is incorrect?

A. Check file system configurations, and then check storage device configurations.
B. Check network connection, and then check NAS device configurations.
C. Check device indicators, and then check system logs.
D. Check the status of storage unit disk enclosures, and then check the status of storage unit controller enclosures.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In performance optimization of the N8500 clustered NAS storage systems, which of the following issues must the maintenance personnel be aware of concerning
LUNs and controllers? (Select 3 answers)

A. Create only one LUN for each RAID group.
B. Set LUNs to forcible write back without mirroring.
C. Ensure that the owning controller and the working controller of a LUN are the same.
D. Disks that compose a file system are evenly distributed on controllers.

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about the VCS services and resources provided by a clustered NAS system are correct? (Select 3 answers)

A. A dependency relationship between service groups can be defined.
B. A dependency relationship between resources can be defined,
C. Each resource corresponds to one agent.
D. Resource dependency relationships can be defined in a cyclic manner.

Answer: A,B,C

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HPE6-A66 Aruba Certified Design Associate Exam

 

Exam ID HPE6-A66
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 67%
Delivery languages Latin American Spanish, Japanese, English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Aruba Design Fundamentals, Rev. 19.41

Additional study materials

Aruba Certified Design Associate Study Guide

Register for this Exam
You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process.

Exam description
This exam validates you have a fundamental knowledge of an Aruba network design and know the Aruba product lines to help you design the network with the assistance of a senior designer. Candidate should know how to read a customer request and extract the information needed for a wired or wireless network. Candidate should know how to use VRF and IRIS.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Candidates are IT Associates with minimal Aruba Networking knowledge. It is suggested all candidates take the course for this exam.

Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:

Multiple choice (multiple responses), scenario based
Multiple choice (single response), scenario based
Multiple choice (multiple responses)
Multiple choice (single response)

Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:

Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

15% Gather and analyze data, and document customer requirements
Given an outline of a customer's needs for a simple campus environment determine the information required to create a solution

25%  Evaluate the requirements, and select the appropriate Aruba solution for the design
Given a scenario, evaluate the customer requirements for a simple campus environment identify gaps per a gap analysis, and select components based on the analysis results.
Given a scenario, translate the business needs of a simple campus environment into technical customer requirements.

23% Plan and design an Aruba solution per customer requirements

Given a scenario, select the appropriate products based on the customer's technical requirements for a simple campus environment
Given the customer requirements for a single-site campus environment design the high-level Aruba solution
Given a customer scenario, explain how a specific technology or solution would meet the customer's requirements

25% Produce a detailed design specification document.
Given a customer scenario for a simple campus environment, choose the appropriate components that should be included in the BOM.
Given the customer requirements for a simple site environment determine the component details and document the high-level design.
Given a customer scenario of a simple site environment, design and document the logical and physical network solutions.
Given the customer scenario and service level agreements, document the licensing and maintenance requirements.

12% Recommend the solution to the customer.
Given the customer's requirements, explain and justify the recommended solution.

QUESTION 1
A customer has phones used as wireless Voice over IP (VoIP) devices.
Which is one implication for the design?

A. Plan policies for the phone role on MCs to give the phones a high QoS priority.
B. Ensure a -75 GHz signal in both the 2.4GHz band and the 5GHz band across the entire site.
C. Ensure that APs connect on Smart Rate ports to support the high bandwidth demands of the phones.
D. Apply a bandwidth contract to the phone VLAN to limit broadcast and multicast traffic.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is one reason to deploy an Aruba 8320 switch when compared to an Aruba 5400R switch?

A. to support cloud-based management and guest services through Aruba Central integration
B. to obtain a great number of options for types of ports, including PoE and non-PoE
C. to enhance network monitoring and analytics
D. to support Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A hospital needs a wireless solution which will provide guest access for patients and visitors, as well as for
medical staff. In addition to laptops and tablets, staff have wireless voice communicator devices. Some medical equipment also connects wirelessly.
How can the network architect help to ensure that patient and visitor internet use does not interfere with more vital hospital applications?

A. Deploy IntroSpect to monitor patient and visitor traffic.
B. Plan a bandwidth contract for the guest role in the MC firewall.
C. Deploy dedicated Air Monitors (AMs) at about one-fourth the density of APs.
D. Ensure that the guest SSID has a password associated with it.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An architect has recommended the deployment or RAPs at user home offices to provide access to the corporate LAN.
How should the architect plan the SSID for the RAPs?

A. Same SSID and security settings as the corporate SSID
B. any name for the SSID with MAC-Authentication
C. any name for the SSID, which would be open; VIA is used for security
D. same name used for the corporate SSID, but always with WPA2-Personal security

Correct Answer: A

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NS0-161 NetApp Certified Data Administrator-ONTAP Exam

 

NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP
You have proven skills in performing in-depth support, administrative functions, and performance management for NetApp® data storage controllers running the ONTAP® operating system in NFS and Windows® (CIFS) multiprotocol environments. You understand how to implement high-availability controller configurations, and have detailed knowledge of technologies used to manage and protect mission-critical data.

NCDA logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP (NS0-161) exam.
Register now for your exam

Prepare for your exam

NS0-161 NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP
Candidates for NCDA (NetApp Certified Data Administrator) certification should have at least six to 12 months of field experience implementing and administering NetApp® data storage solutions in multiprotocol environments. In addition, candidates taking the NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP exam should know how to implement HA controller configurations, SyncMirror® software for rapid data recovery, or ONTAP® solutions with either single- or multi-node configurations.

Take your exam
The NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP (NS0-161) exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.

Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days after you complete your exam.

The NCDA ONTAP (NS0-161) exam includes the following topics:

Storage Platforms
Describe knowledge of physical storage systems.
Describe software-defined on-premises or cloud storage systems.
Describe how to upgrade or scale ONTAP clusters.

Core ONTAP
Describe ONTAP system management.
Describe high availability concepts.
Describe how to manage Storage Virtual Machines (SVM).

Logical Storage
Describe how to use logical storage features.
Describe NetApp storage efficiency features.
Describe NetApp ONTAP Data Fabric solutions.

Networking
Describe how to use network components.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot network components.

SAN Solutions and Connectivity
Describe how to use SAN solutions.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot SAN solutions.

NAS Solutions
Describe how to use NAS solutions.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot NAS solutions.

Data Protection
Describe how to use ONTAP data protection solutions.
Describe how to use SnapMirror.
Identify MetroCluster concepts.

Security
Describe protocol security.
Describe security hardening.
Describe inflight or at rest encryption.
Identify SnapLock concepts.

Performance
Demonstrate knowledge of how to administer ONTAP performance.
Demonstrate knowledge of how to troubleshoot storage system performance.

QUESTION 1
What is the minimum number of disks required to create a RAID-DP data aggregate?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 5

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In an aggregate with only thick-provisioned volumes, you need to split a FlexClone volume from its parent volume. There are other volumes in the aggregate.
In this scenario, how much space must be available within the containing aggregate?

A. You need enough space for twice the size of the parent volume.
B. The split FlexClone volume must be created in a new aggregate.
C. You need enough space for half the size of the parent volume.
D. You need to double the space in the existing aggregate.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a 4-node cluster with 2x AFF A300 and 2x FAS8200 controllers. One of the AFF A300 controllers
has a 50 TB FlexVol volume that needs an immediate read-write copy for standalone testing on one of the FAS8200 controllers.
Which two commands combined accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. volume rehost
B. volume clone create
C. volume move
D. volume clone split

Correct Answer: B,D

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CIPM Certified Information Privacy Manager Exam

 

Operationalizing Privacy – Turning Policies into Programs
Make data privacy regulations work for your organization by understanding how to implement them in day-to-day operations. Learn to create a company vision, structure a data protection team, develop and implement system frameworks, communicate to stakeholders, measure performance and more.

How to create a company vision
How to structure the privacy team
How to develop and implement a privacy program framework
How to communicate to stakeholders
How to measure performance
The privacy program operational life cycle

The CIPM body of knowledge outlines all the concepts and topics that you need to know to become certified. The exam blueprint gives you an idea of how many questions from each topic area you can expect on the exam. These documents, as well as additional certification resources and helpful links, can be found here.

We strongly encourage all potential test takers to read our 2020 Certification Candidate Handbook before testing for details on our testing policies and procedures.

How to Prepare
Earning respected credentials requires a rigorous certification process, which includes passing demanding exams. IAPP exams have a reputation for being difficult to pass on the first try. We strongly recommend careful preparation, even for degreed professionals who have passed other certification tests.

Preparation makes all the difference. In general, we recommend that you train and study for a minimum of 30 hours.

We want you to succeed. Please take advantage of IAPP resources to get through exams with as little anxiety as possible.

Tips for effective studying
Consider enrolling in an IAPP training class. With multiple in-person, live online and online options, IAPP trainings are created from the same topic outline from which exam questions are drawn. PLEASE NOTE that completing a training course does not guarantee passing an exam. Additional preparation is essential, so:

Self-assess—Each IAPP exam comes with two tools for determining how ready you are:

The body of knowledge is an outline of the information covered in the exam. Use it to identify topics you are and are not familiar with.
The exam blueprint tells you how many questions to expect on each topic. Use it to map out a study strategy—allowing more time for topics with many questions, for example.

Use your textbook properly—Textbooks are included with purchase of in-person, live online and online training, and are also sold separately through the IAPP store. Start by reading the table of contents. Note which topics are new to you. That will give you a feel for how much study and review time you need. When you start reading:

Highlight important points in each chapter
Copy out key passages; it will help you remember them
Review each chapter to make sure you’ve captured the key points before moving on

Create flash cards—As you read your textbook, articles, web pages, etc., copy new terms onto notecards. Write their definitions on the other side. Quiz yourself. Use the IAPP’s glossary of privacy terms to look up unfamiliar terms and make flash cards of them, also.

Form a study group—Discussing the material with your coworkers and colleagues is a great way to remember material and understand it more deeply.

Learn in context—It’s easier and more interesting to learn a subject you’re going to use in real life. IAPP publications show how privacy affects our lives and businesses:
Privacy Perspectives
The Privacy Advisor
Privacy Tracker
Privacy Tech
DPO Confessional

Get familiar with privacy news and issues by subscribing to the Daily Dashboard and the IAPP’s curated regional news digests:
Daily Dashboard
Canada Dashboard Digest
Asia-Pacific Dashboard Digest
Latin America Dashboard Digest
Europe Data Protection Digest
U.S. Privacy Digest

Explore our information-packed Resource Center, participate in educational web conferences and listen to The Privacy Advisor Podcast.

Also, compare what’s going on in privacy today with your job. What privacy issues could affect your work and career?
Use questions to find answers­—Utilize sample questions to help you review what you’ve studied and identify weak areas. Re-read notes and chapters on those subjects. Ask your study partners questions. Search for articles that approach the subject from different directions.

QUESTION 1
In addition to regulatory requirements and business practices, what important factors must a global privacy strategy consider?

A. Monetary exchange
B. Geographic features
C. Political history
D. Cultural norms

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How are individual program needs and specific organizational goals identified in privacy framework development?

A. By employing metrics to align privacy protection with objectives
B. Through conversations with the privacy team
C. By employing an industry-standard needs analysis
D. Through creation of the business case

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In privacy protection, what is a “covered entity”?

A. Personal data collected by a privacy organization
B. An organization subject to the privacy provisions of HIPAA
C. A privacy office or team fully responsible for protecting personal information
D. Hidden gaps in privacy protection that may go unnoticed without expert analysis

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an example of Privacy by Design (PbD)?

A. A company hires a professional to structure a privacy program that anticipates the increasing demands of new laws.
B. The human resources group develops a training program from employees to become certified in privacy policy.
C. A labor union insists that the details of employers’ data protection methods be documented in a new contract.
D. The information technology group uses privacy considerations to inform the development of new networking software.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the key factor that lays the foundation for all other elements of a privacy program?

A. The applicable privacy regulations
B. The structure of a privacy team
C. A privacy mission statement
D. A responsible internal stakeholder

Correct Answer: A

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