Thursday, November 17, 2022

C_PO_7517 SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP Process Orchestration Exam Dumps

 

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Cut Score: 65%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: German, English

Description
The "SAP Certified Technology Associate - Process Orchestration" certification exam validates that the candidate knows the necessary tools, processes and basics for creating orchestration processes using Java technology. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall understanding and in‐depth technical skills to participate as a member of a project team in a mentored role. This certification exam is recommended as an entry level qualification.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Business Processes Modeling and BPMN 2.0 (Business Process Management Notation) > 12%

Explain the difference between BPM, and Business Workflow, sequence diagrams, the perspectives in NWDS, Message Flow, Data Flow, Association, the Configuration of BPMN models; Model a business process List the BPMN types of Process Diagrams; Describe the elements of BPMN 2.0; Develop business processes and flow models.

BIT800

The Role of the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX) > 12%

Define the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX), list the functionality of the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX); Explain how to Create an Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX) integration flow.

BIT500
BIT800

SAP Business Rules Management (BRM) 8% - 12%


Describe SAP Business Rules Management (BRM), the justification process for developing a new Business Rule and describe rulesets; Describe Rulesets.

BIT800

Mapping 8% - 12%

Describe and use Standard functions, user-defined functions, message mapping, multi-mapping, ABAP, Java and XSLT mapping

BIT500
BIT800

Operations and Process Monitoring in SAP Process Orchestration 8% - 12%

Explain how to Use the SAP NetWeaver Administrator functionality, the Operations tab in the NetWeaver Administrator, Certificates, Restart and Recovery and how to Access SAP Process Integration Monitoring; Start Business Processes; Define the Lifetime of Business Processes; Configure Process Orchestration in NetWeaver Administrator (NWA)Describe monitoring of the business processes and the AEX.

BIT500

Basic Concepts System Landscape Directory (SLD) and Enterprise Service Repository (ESR) 8% - 12%

Describe the use of the System Landscape Directory (SLD), the Enterprise Service Repository (ESR), the Business systems & Technical systems and the use of Software Components in the ESR; Analyze Interface Objects in the Enterprise Services Repository.

BIT500

SAP Processes Integration Architecture 8% - 12%


Explain the difference between Process Orchestration and Process Integration, and how to establish the work environment for process creation; Describe the basic SAP Process Integration Architecture, the tools available for business process development, and message processing.

BIT500

Configuration of iFlows in NetWeaver Developer Studio (SAP NWDS) 8% - 12%

Describe the use of the perspective in SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio, and how data types are mapped in SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio; Describe data objects and iFlows; List the available data types; Describe Data Types in BPMN Processes.

BIT800

Integration Objects in the Integration Directory < 8%

Explain how to configure a scenario in the Integration Directory, how to process messages using the advanced adapter engine and the integration objects in the Integration Directory.

BIT500

Roles and Authorizations of a BPM Process < 8%


Describe Software Catalog (Products and Software Components), the SAP Component mode and the use of the Objects of the Component Model.

BIT800

BPM Development Steps < 8%

Outline the configuration of business processes

BIT800

Basic Concepts for BPM Integration Flow (iFlow) < 8%

Explain process context

BIT800

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our SAP Certification FAQs.

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following tools are used to access the SAP Process Integration components?
Choose the correct answers.

A. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
B. Enterprise Services Builder
C. Integration Builder
D. Workflow Builder

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 2
What are the elements that determine the uniqueness of an object in the Enterprise Service Repository (ESR)?
Choose the correct answers.

A. The name of the object
B. The name of the software component with which the object is associated
C. The associated namespace
D. The number of objects

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION 3
You can use ... to bundle all the configuration objects that belong to a single interface scenario.
Choose the correct answer.

A. Configuration scenario
B. Advanced Adapter Engine (AAE)
C. Integration Engine (IE)

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
The Enterprise Service Repository (ESR) is in the Process Composer perspective. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are potential uses of the Advances Adapter Engine Extended (AEX)?
Choose the correct answers.

A. Controlling the routing of message exchange between applications
B. Enabling major scenario shirts from dual stack PI to AAE
C. Monitoring the exchange of messages between the involved systems
D. Managing the various versions of the services provided by the ESB

Answer: A,C,D
 

Wednesday, November 16, 2022

Cisco New 500-444 Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Implementation and Troubleshooting Exam

 

500-444 CCEIT : Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Implementation and Troubleshooting
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Associated certification : Advanced Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialization

Exam preparation Official Cisco training
Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCEI)
Troubleshooting Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCET)

Exam Description:
Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Implementation and Troubleshooting v1.0 (500-444) tests a candidate's knowledge of PCCE Implementation Preparation, Initialization, Configuration and Troubleshooting. The courses Troubleshooting Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCET) and Implementing Cisco Contact Center Enterprise (CCEI) helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

30% 1.0 PCCE Implementation Preparation
1.1 Describe planning a PCCE Deployment
1.2 Explain PCCE Deployment and Staging
1.3 Describe software preparation
1.4 Explain Certificate Administration

10% 2.0 PCCE Implementation Initialization
2.1 Understand Integration Wizard
2.2 Describe a PCCE site addition
2.3 Explain CUIC/Live Data/Finesse Integration

30% 3.0 PCCE implementation – Configuration
3.1 Explain the personalization of the PCCE Dial Plan
3.2 Understand deployment from configuration to validation
3.3 Explain scripting
3.4 Describe Single Sign-On

30% 4.0 Troubleshooting
4.1 Explain the Flows and Process review
4.2 Describe the Diagnostic Framework
4.3 Understand Applied CCE Troubleshooting

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QUESTION 1
Which two certificates do the Cisco Finesse primary and secondary servers accept when HTTPS
protocol is used to access the administration console or agent desktop in Cisco Finesse? (Choose two.)

A. Domain validation certificate
B. Digital certificate
C. Self-signed certificate
D. Certificate authority certificate
E. Root certificate

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
What are two specifications for UC on UCS Tested Reference Configuration (TRC)? (Choose two.)

A. defined as Configuration Based
B. VMware vSphere is optional
C. VMware vCenter is required
D. defined as Rule Based
E. VMware vSphere is required

Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
To which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration object should the call be transferred
to maintain end-to-end reporting context when an agent transfers a call to another ICM Skill Group?

A. CTI route point
B. Agent IP phone
C. Route pattern
D. Translation pattern

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode when using microapps?

A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE. VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML Gateway

Answer: C
 

Friday, November 11, 2022

Latest JN0-231 Juniper Security, Associate Exam PDF Download

 

Exam Details
Exam questions are derived from the recommended training and the exam resources listed above. Pass/fail status is available immediately after taking the exam. The exam is only provided in English.

Exam Code : JN0-231
Prerequisite Certification : None
Exam Length : 90 minutes
Exam Type : 65 multiple-choice questions
Software Versions : Junos OS 21.2

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Exam Objective

Description
SRX Series Devices

Identify concepts or general features of SRX Series devices
Interfaces
Hardware
Initial configuration
Traffic flow/security processing
vSRX

Junos Security Objects
Identify concepts or general functionality of security zone, screen, address, or services objects

Zones
Screens
Addresses/address books

Security policies
Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of security policies

Zone-based policies
Global policies
Application firewall
Unified security policies
IPS/IDP
Integrated user firewall

Juniper Advanced Threat Protection

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of Juniper ATP Cloud

General operation
Blocking mechanisms

Network Address Translation

Describe the concepts, benefits, or operation of NAT
Source NAT
Destination NAT
Static NAT

IPsec

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of IPsec VPNs
IPsec tunnel establishment
IPsec traffic processing
IPsec site-to-site VPNs
Juniper Secure Connect

Unified Threat Management

Identify the concepts, benefits, or operation of UTM
Content filtering
Web filtering
Antivirus
Antispam

Monitoring/Reporting and Troubleshooting

Describe methods for monitoring, reporting, or logging for Juniper security solutions
J-Web
Sky Enterprise
Junos Space Security Director

Who this course is for:

For students preparing for the JNCIA-SEC JN0-231 certification exam
For students who want to demonstrate solid understanding of Juniper security concepts
For network engineers and IT professionals who want to test their Juniper knowledge for their upcoming job interview

QUESTION 1
Which of these about security zones is true?

A. Logical interfaces can only be added to user-defined security zones
B. A security zone must contain at least one interface
C. An interface can belong to multiple security zones
D. A security zone can only contain one interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of these cloud providers support vSRX? (Choose two)

A. Contrail Cloud
B. VMware Cloud
C. Microsoft Azure
D. Amazon Web Services

Answer: C,D

QUESTION 3
SSH service has been correctly configured on an SRX device. However, administrators are unable to connect using SSH on the revenue ports.
Which of these can be configured to solve this problem?

A. Allow SSH traffic as host inbound traffic on the incoming security zone
B. Configure an IDP policy to allow SSH traffic
C. Configure a global policy to allow SSH traffic
D. Configure a security policy to allow SSH traffic

Answer: A



 

Saturday, October 15, 2022

NSE5_FMG-7.0 Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0 Exam

 

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0

Exam series: NSE5_FMG-7.0
Number of questions: 35
Exam time: 70 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiManager 7.0
Status: Available Available

Exam details: exam description

NSE 5 Certification
The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security devices. We recommend this course for network and security analysts who require
the expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification
Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0

The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is part of the NSE 5 Network Security Analyst program, and recognizes the successfu* candidate’s knowledge of and expertise with FortiManager.
The exam tests applied knowledge of FortiManager configuration, operation, and day-to-day administration, and includes operationa* scenarios, system configuration, device registration, and troubleshooting.

Audience

The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is intended for network and security analysts who are responsible for centralized network administration of many FortiGate devices using FortiManager.

Exam Details

Exam name Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0
Exam series NSE5_FMG-7.0
Time allowed 70 minutes

Exam Topics
Successfu* candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:

* Administration
* Perform initia* configuration
* Configure administrative domains (ADOMs)
* Device Manager
* Register devices in ADOMs
* Instal* configuration changes using scripts
* Diagnose issues using the revision history
* Policy and objects
* Configure different administrative access levels using the workspace
* Perform policy and object management
* Identify ADOM revisions and database versions
* Perform the import and installation methods
* Advanced configuration
* Configure various management panes and extensions
* Implement and troubleshoot FortiManager HA
* Configure FortiGuard services
* Use the globa* ADOM to envelop policy packages
* Troubleshooting
* Troubleshoot FortiManager deployment scenarios
* Troubleshoot import and installation issues
* Troubleshoot policy and object management
* Troubleshoot device settings

Training Resources

The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 5 FortiManager 7.0

Other Resources
* FortiManager Administration Guide 7.0.1
* FortiManager New Features Guide 7.0.0
* FortiManager CLI Reference 7.0.1

Experience
* Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Exam Sample Questions

Experience
Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Who this course is for:
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the scheduled backup of FortiManager are true? (Choose two.)

A. It does not back up firmware images saved on FortiManager.
B. It can be configured using the CLI and GUI.
C. It backs up all devices and the FortiGuard database.
D. It supports FTP, SCP, and SFTP.

Explanation:

Answer: AD
Reference:
https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/collections/fortinet/fortimanager/fmgr_system_backup_alls
ettings_module.html


QUESTION 2
In addition to the default ADOMs, an administrator has created a new ADOM named Training for FortiGate devices. The administrator sent a device registration to FortiManager from a remote FortiGate. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The FortiGate will be added automatically to the default ADOM named FortiGate.
B. The FortiGate will be automatically added to the Training ADOM.
C. By default, the unregistered FortiGate will appear in the root ADOM.
D. The FortiManager administrator must add the unregistered device manually to the unregistered device
manually to the Training ADOM using the Add Device wizard

Explanation:

Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager.0.0/administrationguide/
718923/root-adom


QUESTION 3
You are moving managed FortiGate devices from one ADOM to a new ADOM.
Which statement correctly describes the expected result?

A. Any pending device settings will be installed automatically
B. Any unused objects from a previous ADOM are moved to the new ADOM automatically
C. The shared policy package will not be moved to the new ADOM
D. Policy packages will be imported into the new ADOM automaticallyD
Answer: C

Explanation:


Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiManager/Technical-Note-How-to-move-objectsto-
new-ADOM-on-FortiManager/ta-p342


QUESTION 4
In the event that the primary FortiManager fails, which of the following actions must be performed to return the FortiManager HA to a working state?

A. Secondary device with highest priority will automatically be promoted to the primary role, and manually reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device
B. Reboot one of the secondary devices to promote it automatically to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
C. Manually promote one of the secondary devices to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
D. FortiManager HA state transition is transparent to administrators and does not require any reconfiguration.

Answer: C

Explanation:
FortiManager_6.4_Study_Guide-Online" page 346

Explanation:
FortiManager HA doesn̢۪t support IP takeover where an HA state transition is transparent to administrators. If a failure of the primary occurs, the administrator must take corrective action to resolve the problem that may include invoking the state transition. If the primary device fails, the administrator must do the following in order to return the FortiManager HA to a working state:
1. Manually reconfigure one of the secondary devices to become the primary device
2. Reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device

Friday, October 14, 2022

1Z0-1047-22 Oracle Absence Management Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

 

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $245
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy:Cloud Recertification Earn associated certifications

Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Absence Management Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1047-22
An Oracle Absence Management Cloud 2021 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated the knowledge required to implement, configure, and use Oracle Absence Management Cloud for your enterprise. Individuals who earn this certification are able to identify key concepts of absence management, identify the setup components of absence management, create accrual and qualification absence plans, and much more.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Oracle Absence Management Cloud Overview
Describe the main features of Absence Management
Describe the setup components of Absence Management
Describe the difference between Absence Type and Absence Plan
Describe the types of absence plans available in Absence Management

Absence Accrual Plans
Explain the absence management processes related to accrual plans
Set up derived factors
Configure eligibility profiles
Create a repeating time period
Create absence accrual plans

Absence Qualification Plans

Describe the plans terms available for qualification plans
Explain the absence management processes related to qualification plans
Identify the components for the qualification entitlements display
Create absence qualification plans

Absence Types
Describe the impact of work schedules on absence duration calculations
Explain absence type patterns and display features
Create a work schedule (including Public Holidays) and assign to employee(s)
Create absence types
Schedule absences using the Absence Self-Service pages

Certification Action Items
Describe the types and usages of certification action items
Configure Certifications (document and entitlement change types)
Set up Certifications (document and entitlement change types) within Absence Type
Manage Absence Certifications (schedule process, track due dates, status, etc.)

Administration Tasks
Administering plan enrollments and adjustments
Create, maintain and recalculate absence records
Explain and execute Absence Management processes

Payroll Integration
Describe the setup tasks required to integrate with Global Payroll
Integrate Absence Management and Global Payroll
Set up rate definitions in Absence Management

Compensatory and Donation Plans
Explain Compensatory Time plan rules
Explain Donation plan rules
Create Compensatory time and Donation plans

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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about absence patterns?

A. You can modify the content of an absence pattern using thetask "Manage Absence Patterns."?
B. Absence patterns help to visualize the trend or pattern of absence entries for a worker.
C. Absence patterns control the fields that appear in the Manage Absence Types setup page.
D. "Sickness"? is one of the available absence patterns.

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration?

A. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through payroll.
B. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating absence plans.
C. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization.
D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence plans.

Answer: A,B,C


QUESTION 3
A worker is scheduled to work from Monday to Friday. As an HR administrator, you receive a call from
the worker on Friday evening 16-Jun-2017, that they are on vacation from 17-Jun-2017 (Saturday)
and will be back at work on 26-Jun-2017 (Monday). The absence type for vacation has no duration
formula or plans attached and the duration is measured in Days. There is a calendar exception on 23-
Jun-2017 (Friday).

What should bethestart date, enddate, and theduration of thisabsence record if the "Schedule
nonworking days"? is set to "Not enabled"??

A. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 22-Jun-2017Duration: 4
B. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 8
C. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 4
D. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 26-Jun-2017Duration: 10
E. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 26-Jun-2017Duration: 5
F. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 9

Answer: F


QUESTION 4
Acustomer requiresthat theiremployees entertheirvacation/holiday with some periodrestrictions:
the absence record can be entered only 3 months before the system day and 2 months in advance
based on system day. Administrators and managers entering the vacation on behalf of employees
won"?t have thisrestriction.
Which configuration should you use to implement these requirements?

A. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Define Absence start date validation according to the requirements.4) Enable
Absence start date validation for employee self-service transaction.

B. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Define Absence start date validation according to the requirements.4) Enable
Absence start date validation for employees, managers, and administrators.

C. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Create an eligibility formula with the logic required and add it to the absence type.

D. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative and employee
updates.3) Create an eligibilityformula withthelogicrequired and add it to the absence type.

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
When an absence gets approved before its start date, what status does it change to?

A. Saved
B. In Progress
C. Reviewed
D. Accepted
E. Completed
F. Scheduled

Answer: F
 

Wednesday, October 12, 2022

700-846 Cisco IoT Advantage for Account Managers Exam

 

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco’s IoT strategy, IoT products, and industry specific sales plays.

Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Exam preparation Official Cisco training

Cisco IoT Advantage for Account Managers
Cisco Partners can access Sales Connect for access to a variety of training content to help them prepare for this exam.

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IoT Advantage for Account Managers v1.0 (IOTAM 700-846) tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco’s IoT strategy, IoT products, and industry specific sales plays. The course Cisco IoT Advantage for Account Managers helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

10% 1.0 Cisco IoT Strategy and Products
1.1 Describe Cisco IoT strategy
1.2 Explain positioning for Cisco IoT products
1.3 Describe the programs and incentives of Cisco IoT

10% 2.0 Extended Enterprise Sales Motion
2.1 Understand the Extended Enterprise sales play and opportunity
2.2 Describe use cases for Extended Enterprise
2.3 Explain the features of Extended Enterprise solutions

10% 3.0 Manufacturing
3.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the manufacturing industry
3.2 Describe the IoT use cases in manufacturing
3.3 Explain product positioning for manufacturing use cases

10% 4.0 Utilities
4.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the utility industry
4.2 Describe the IoT use cases in utilities
4.3 Explain product positioning for utility use cases

10% 5.0 Oil and Gas

5.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the oil and gas industry
5.2 Describe the IoT use cases in oil and gas
5.3 Explain product positioning for oil and gas use cases

10% 6.0 Transportation
6.1 Explain the concerns and challenges for roadways and intersections
6.2 Describe the IoT use cases in roadways and intersections
6.3 Explain product positioning for roadway and intersection use cases

10% 7.0 Mining
7.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the mining industry
7.2 Describe the IoT use cases in mining
7.3 Explain product positioning for mining use cases

20% 8.0 Products and Technologies
8.1 Describe how CUWRB addresses customer challenges with wireless connectivity in IoT deployments
8.2 Describe the capabilities, value proposition, and design considerations for CUWRB
8.3 Identify and qualify CUWRB opportunities
8.4 Explain the value proposition of Cisco’s industrial security portfolio
8.5 Explain positioning of Cisco industrial security with stakeholders
8.6 Describe the key features and value of Cyber Vision
8.7 Explain management tool positioning for use cases to meet customer requirements

10% 9.0 IoT Operations Dashboard
9.1 Explain the key benefits of deploying IoT Operations Dashboard
9.2 Describe services of the IoT Operations Dashboard
9.3 Describe the key features and benefits of Industrial Asset Vision
9.4 Describe the main use cases for Industrial Asset Vision
9.5 Describe the capabilities of Edge Intelligence
9.6 Explain value proposition and use cases of Edge Intelligence
 

QUESTION 1
What does the term FMS stand for in mining environments?

A. Fleet Management System
B. Freight Management Sorter
C. Free Mainline Security
D. For Master Support

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which IE switch is recommended for airport jetways?

A. IE3000
B. IE2000
C. IE3400
D. IE3200

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/switches/catalyst-ie3400-rugged-series/index.html


QUESTION 3
Which product series has ultra-high performance featuring enhanced security and available Cyber
Vision for Industrial Control Systems visibility is SD-WAN and Edge compute enabled, is a Precision
Timing Source and is Utility certified?

A. IR1101
B. IR1800 Rugged Series Routers
C. Catalyst IR8100 Heavy Duty Series Routers
D. Catalyst IR8300 Rugged Series

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
How do converged networks provide the most significant impact in a typical manufacturing factory"?

A. reduced downtime
B. plant safety
C. machine safety
D. better fleet operations

Answer: D

Sunday, October 9, 2022

1Z0-1057-22 Oracle Project Management Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

 

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 60%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Project Management Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

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Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1057-22
An Oracle Project Management Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated expertise in implementing Oracle Project Management Cloud solutions. Individuals who earn this certification are familiar with Common Project Configuration, Project Foundation, Project Control, Project Costing, Project Billing, Project Performance Reporting, Project Management, Program Management, and Project resource management.

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Project Management Overview
Describe the components of Oracle Project Management Cloud
Explain the components available for integration

Navigation, User Experience, Personalization and Approvals
Describe the business processes that are supported by approvals and workflows
Set up approval and notification tasks
Describe Navigation, User Experience and Personalization Concepts

Applications Security Overview
Describe the Applications Security Console
Identify the roles delivered in a seeded security implementation
Manage roles and duties

Functional Setup Manager
Describe Functional Setup Manager
Describe the Rapid Implementation Workbook

Common Project configuration
Manage Subledger Accounting
Set up Project Financial Management Organizations
Manage Reference Data Sharing

Configure Project Foundation
Set up Project Calendars and Periods
Setup Types and Categorizations
Manage Project Resources
Describe Rate Schedules
Describe Project Types
Set up Transaction Sources
Labor Schedule

Configure Project Costing
Configure Project Cost Collection Center
Manage Burdening
Manage Allocations
Explain capitalized interest calculations
Describe Budgetary Controls
Configure Time & Labor for projects
Manage Integrations

Configure Project Control
Manage Project Budgets and Forecasts

Configure Project Billing
Configure Project Cross Charging and Transfer Pricing
Configure and Manage Project Invoicing and Revenue

Configure Project Performance Reporting
Configure and Manage Key Performance Indicators for Project Performance Reporting

Configure Project Management
Describe common project execution components
Manage Issues and Deliverables
Describe project requirements
Configure Social Network for Project Execution
Manage Project Gates
Use Application Composer for Project Execution Management

Configure Project Resource Management
Define Project Enterprise Labor Resources

Program Management
Program Management and Reporting


QUESTION 1
A consulting services company is currently working on a business transformation project for your
client, which spans multiple years. At the first period close, the consulting services company has
recognized revenue and the accounting entry created is:
DrUnbilledReceivables40,000
Cr Revenue 40,000
At the end of the period, the client is sent an associated bill. What would be the corresponding
invoice accounting entry? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Dr Unearned Revenue 40,000Cr Accounts Receivables 40,000
B. Dr Accounts Receivables 40,000Cr Unbilled Receivables 40,000
C. Dr Accounts Receivables 40,000Cr Revenue 40,000
D. Dr Unearned Revenue 40,000Cr Revenue 40,000

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
You want to export your project plan to Oracle Project Financial Management Cloud after initial
scheduling iscompletein Microsoft Projects. Identify three conditions that must be met for exporting
milestone tasks. (Choose three.)

A. only one labor resource assignment with 100 effort
B. lowest-level tasks set up with non-zero duration
C. lowest-level tasks set up with zero duration
D. only one labor resource assignment with 0 effort
E. percent work complete values of 0 or 100 percent

Answer: C, D, E



QUESTION 3
Yourcustomer wants to automatically allocate unassigned asset lines and common costs across
multiple assets based on the construction-in-process cost of each asset. Identify the asset allocation
method that you must use as the default method while configuring project types to meet this
requirement. (Choose the bestanswer.)

A. Standard Unit Cost
B. Actual Unit
C. Current Cost
D. Estimated Cost
E. Spread Evenly

Answer: C