SC-900 Microsoft Security Compliance and Identity Fundamentals Exam

 

The English language version of this exam was updated on April 25, 2022.
Following the current exam guide, we have included a table that compares the previous study guide to the new one by functional group, showing the changes that were made to the exam on that date. We have also included the previous study guide for reference purposes.

The table below shows the changes that were implemented on April 25, 2022 to the English language version of this exam. Following the comparison table, the previous study guide is included for reference

Old objective number	Subtask changes and new location
1.1 Describe security and compliance concepts & methodologies	Revised title and subtasks
1.2 Define identity concepts	Revised subtasks
2.1 Describe the basic identity services and identity types of Azure AD	Revised subtasks
2.2 Describe the authentication capabilities of Azure AD	Revised subtasks
2.3 Describe access management capabilities of Azure AD	Revised subtasks
2.4 Describe the identity protection & governance capabilities of Azure AD	Revised subtasks
3.1 Describe basic security capabilities in Azure	Revised subtasks
3.2 Describe security management capabilities of Azure	Revised subtasks
3.3 Describe security capabilities of Azure Sentinel	Revised subtasks
3.4 Describe threat protection with Microsoft 365 Defender	Revised subtasks
3.5 Describe security management capabilities of Microsoft 365	Deleted; moved to 3.4

3.6 Describe endpoint security with Microsoft Intune	Deleted
4.1 Describe the compliance management capabilities in Microsoft	Revised title and subtasks, split into 4.1 and 4.2
4.2 Describe information protection and governance capabilities of Microsoft 365	Revised title and subtasks
4.3 Describe insider risk capabilities in Microsoft 365	Revised subtasks
4.4 Describe resource governance capabilities in Azure	Revised title and subtasks

Audience Profile
This certification is targeted to those looking to familiarize themselves with the fundamentals of security, compliance, and identity (SCI) across cloud-based and related Microsoft services.
This is a broad audience that may include business stakeholders, new or existing IT professionals, or students who have an interest in Microsoft security, compliance, and identity solutions.

Candidates should be familiar with Microsoft Azure and Microsoft 365 and want to understand how Microsoft security, compliance, and identity solutions can span across these solution areas to provide a holistic and end-to-end solution.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. Related topics may be covered in the exam.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Describe the concepts of security, compliance, and identity (5-10%)
Describe security and compliance concepts & methodologies
• describe the Zero-Trust methodology
• describe the shared responsibility model
• define defense in depth
• describe common threats
• describe encryption and hashing
• describe cloud adoption framework

Define identity concepts
• define identity as the primary security perimeter
• define authentication
• define authorization
• describe what identity providers are
• describe what Active Directory is
• describe the concept of Federated services
• define common Identity Attacks

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft identity and access management solutions (25-30%)

Describe the basic identity services and identity types of Azure AD
• describe what Azure Active Directory is
• describe Azure AD identity types (users, devices, groups, service principals/applications)
• describe what hybrid identity is
• describe the different external identity types (Guest Users)

Describe the authentication capabilities of Azure AD
• describe the different authentication methods
• describe self-service password reset
• describe password protection and management capabilities
• describe Multi-factor Authentication
• describe Windows Hello for Business

Describe access management capabilities of Azure AD
• describe what conditional access is
• describe uses and benefits of conditional access
• describe the benefits of Azure AD roles

Describe the identity protection & governance capabilities of Azure AD
• describe what identity governance is
• describe what entitlement management and access reviews is
• describe the capabilities of PIM
• describe Azure AD Identity Protection

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft Security solutions (30-35%)

Describe basic security capabilities in Azure
• describe Azure Network Security groups
• describe Azure DDoS protection
• describe what Azure Firewall is
• describe what Azure Bastion is
• describe what Web Application Firewall is
• describe ways Azure encrypts data

Describe security management capabilities of Azure
• describe Cloud security posture management (CSPM)
• describe Microsoft Defender for Cloud
• describe secure score in Microsoft Defender Cloud
• describe enhanced security of Microsoft Defender for Cloud
• describe security baselines for Azure

Describe security capabilities of Microsoft Sentinel
• define the concepts of SIEM, SOAR, XDR
• describe how of Microsoft Sentinel provides integrated threat protection

Describe threat protection with Microsoft 365 Defender
• describe Microsoft 365 Defender services
• describe Microsoft Defender for Identity (formerly Azure ATP)
• describe Microsoft Defender for Office 365 (formerly Office 365 ATP)
• describe Microsoft Defender for Endpoint (formerly Microsoft Defender ATP)
• describe Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps

Describe security management capabilities of Microsoft 365
• describe the Microsoft 365 Defender portal
• describe how to use Microsoft Secure Score
• describe security reports and dashboards
• describe incidents and incident management capabilities

Describe endpoint security with Microsoft Intune
• describe what Intune is
• describe endpoint security with Intune
• describe the endpoint security with the Microsoft Endpoint Manager admin center

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft compliance solutions (25-30%)
Describe the compliance management capabilities in Microsoft
• describe the offerings of the Service Trust portal
• describe Microsoft’s privacy principles
• describe the compliance center
• describe compliance manager
• describe use and benefits of compliance score

Describe information protection and governance capabilities of Microsoft 365
• describe data classification capabilities
• describe the value of content and activity explorer
• describe sensitivity labels
• describe Retention Polices and Retention Labels
• describe Records Management
• describe Data Loss Prevention

Describe insider risk capabilities in Microsoft 365
• describe Insider risk management solution
• describe communication compliance
• describe information barriers
• describe privileged access management
• describe customer lockbox

Describe the eDiscovery and audit capabilities of Microsoft 365
• describe the purpose of eDiscovery
• describe the capabilities of the content search tool
• describe the core eDiscovery workflow
• describe the advanced eDiscovery workflow
• describe the core audit capabilities of M365
• describe purpose and value of Advanced Auditing

Describe resource governance capabilities in Azure
• describe the use of Azure Resource locks
• describe what Azure Blueprints is
• define Azure Policy and describe its use cases
 

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QUESTION 1
Which score measures an organization's progress in completing actions that help reduce risks associated to
data protection and regulatory standards?

A. Microsoft Secure Score
B. Productivity Score
C. Secure score in Azure Security Center
D. Compliance score

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 2
What do you use to provide real-time integration between Azure Sentinel and another security source?

A. Azure AD Connect
B. a Log Analytics workspace
C. Azure Information Protection
D. a connector

Answer: D

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QUESTION 3
Which Microsoft portal provides information about how Microsoft cloud services comply with regulatory standard,
such as International Organization for Standardization (ISO)?

A. the Microsoft Endpoint Manager admin center
B. Azure Cost Management + Billing
C. Microsoft Service Trust Portal
D. the Azure Active Directory admin center

Answer: C

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QUESTION 4
In the shared responsibility model for an Azure deployment, what is Microsoft solely responsible for managing?

A. the management of mobile devices
B. the permissions for the user data stored in Azure
C. the creation and management of user accounts
D. the management of the physical hardware

Answer: D

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QUESTION 5
In the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure, which two phases are addressed before the Ready phase?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Plan
B. Manage
C. Adopt
D. Govern
E. Define Strategy

Answer: A,E
 

C1000-026 IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Administration Exam

 

Certification Overview
This entry level certification is intended for administrators who can demonstrate basic support and technical knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2, including implementation and management of an IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 solution.
Overall, these administrators are familiar with product functionality and the security policies. They plan, install, configure, implement, deploy, migrate, upgrade, monitor and troubleshoot the IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 software.

Note: The function of specific apps, apart from the two bundled with the product, is out of scope, but the concept of extending the capability of using apps is in scope.
Recommended Skills

Basic knowledge in:
RedHat
Networking
Basic Query Language
Regular Expressions
System architecture design
Security platforms

Requirements
Exam C1000-026: IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.3.2 Fundamental Administration

The test: contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.

is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

Exam Objectives
The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 40
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Withdrawn

Section 1: Implementing
Plan and design QRadar deployment.
Implement and install QRadar.
Add Managed Hosts.

Section2: Migrating and upgrading
Plan QRadar upgrade and migration.
Review documentation and release notes.
Perform QRadar updates, patches and upgrades.
Perform migration (e.g., backup and restore, import and export content).

Section3: Configuring and Administering task
Configure event flow sources and custom properties.
Maintain configuration and data backups.
Create and administer users, user roles, and security profiles.
Manage the license per allocation.
Create, review and modify rules, building blocks and reference sets.
Configure and manage retention policies (i.e., data and assets).
Create and manage saved searches, index, global views, dashboards and reports.
Deploy and manage applications and content packages.
Configure global system notifications.
Configure and apply network hierarchy.
Configure and manage domain and tenants.
Use the asset database.
Schedule and run a VA scan.

Section4: Monitoring
Monitor QRadar Notifications and error messages.
Review and interpret system monitoring dashboards.
Verify QRadar processes and services.
Monitor QRadar performance.
Use apps and tools for monitoring (e.g., QDI, assistant app, incident overview, DrQ).
Check system maintenance and health of appliances.
Monitor offenses and detect anomalies.

Section5: Troubleshooting

Exam Resources
To prepare for the test, take the first self-study course listed below. It is free-of-charge and covers all the knowledge and skills measured on the test. The second course listed (BQ103), alone will not adequately help you prepare for the test. BQ103 can, however, be used as a supplement to the first self-study course. To register for the second course, click here to contact one of IBM's Global Training Providers.

(*) Notes:

These learning sources are recommended, but not required before taking this test.
Every effort has been made to make the recommended learning sources as complete and as accurate as possible, but no warranty of fitness is implied. The learning sources provided are on an 'as is' basis. IBM shall have neither liability nor responsibility to any person or entity with respect to any loss or damages arising from course or publication content.

You must be logged in to the Security Learning Academy for the link to the self-study course to work properly. If you see an error message after clicking a link, log in and retry the link.

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QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to import data into QRadar for a specific use case.
The data that has been provided to the administrator is stored in records that map a key to a value.
Which type of data collection must the administrator create?

A. Reference set
B. Reference map of sets
C. Reference map
D. Reference map of maps

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An administrator needs to know if a custom rule is being correlated correctly.
Which QRadar component is responsible for this process?

A. QRadar Event Collector
B. QRadar Console
C. Magistrate
D. QRadar Event Processor

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to collect logs from the Command Line Interface (CLI).
Which command should the administrator use?

A. /opt/bin/qradar/support/get_logs.sh
B. /opt/support/get_logs.sh
C. /opt/support/qradar/get_logs.sh
D. /opt/qradar/support/get_logs.sh

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
To comply with specific regulations, an administrator has been requested to increase asset retention to 365 days.
In which QRadar section can the administrator find the asset retention settings?

A. Admin Tab / Asset Retention
B. Assets Tab / Retention settings
C. Admin Tab / System settings
D. Assets Tab / Asset Retention

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A QRadar administrator added High Availability (HA) to the Event Processor and needs to verify the crossover
link status between the primary and secondary hosts.
Which commands can be used to verify the crossover status? (Choose two.)

A. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/ha_getstate.sh
B. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/getStatus crossover
C. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/qradar_nettune.pl crossover status
D. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/qradar_nettune.pl linkaggr <interface> status
E. /opt/qradar/ha/bin/ha cstate
F. cat /proc/drbd

Answer: C,F

1z0-1084-21 Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Developer 2021 Associate Exam

 

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: Validated against Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2021
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1084-21
An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Developer 2021 Associate exam is intended for developers and those in Dev Ops who have 12 months or more experience of developing and maintaining OCI applications. They should have a solid understanding of cloud native fundamentals and in-depth knowledge of at least one programming language. They should demonstrate knowledge of developing, securing, testing and operating applications in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and ability to use the OCI service APIs, CLI, and SDKs to write applications. Hands on knowledge of OCI architecture, use cases, best practices are recommended.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Learning Subscription
In the subscription:
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Cloud Native Fundamentals
Explain Distributed Computing
Explain Microservices vs. Containers vs. Functions
Discuss the Meaning of Serverless Computing
Describe Service Communication Patterns

Developing Cloud Native Applications
Develop Serverless Application with Oracle Functions
Develop Microservices and Applications for OKE
Use Data in Cloud Native
Use OCI APIs, SDKs and CLIupgrade

Securing Cloud Native Applications
Overcome Security challenges with Cloud Native
Use the Defense-in-depth approach
Configure and Use Secret Management
Use IAM for authn/authz

Testing Cloud Native Applications
Explain the Challenges of testing in Cloud Native world
Manage multiple environments (dev, test/stage, prod)

Operating Cloud Native Applications
Manage Infrastructure
Build, Deploy and Release Applications
Perform Tasks around Monitoring, Observability, and Alerting

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QUESTION 1
Given a service deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE), which
annotation should you add in the sample manifest file below to specify a 400 Mbps load balancer?
apiVersion: v1
kind: Service
metadata:
name: my-nginx-svc
labels:
app: nginx
annotations:
<Fill in>
spec:
type: LoadBalancer
ports:
- port: 80
selector:
app: nginx

A. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-value: 400Mbps
B. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-size: 400Mbps
C. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-kind: 400Mbps
D. service.beta.kubernetes.io/oci-load-balancer-shape: 400Mbps

Answer: D
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 2
You are implementing logging in your services that will be running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container
Engine for Kubernetes.
Which statement describes the appropriate logging approach?

A. All services log to standard output only.
B. All services log to an external logging system.
C. All services log to a shared log file.
D. Each service logs to its own log file.

Answer: A
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

---

QUESTION 3
You are building a container image and pushing it to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR). You
need to make sure that these images never get deleted from the repository.
Which action should you take?

A. Set global policy of image retention to ?Retain All Images?.
B. In your compartment, write a policy to limit access to the specific repository.
C. Create a group and assign a policy to perform lifecycle operations on images.
D. Edit the tenancy global retention policy.

Answer: A
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 4
You are processing millions of files in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket. Each time a
new file is created, you want to send an email to the customer and create an order in a database. The solution
should perform and minimize cost.
Which action should you use to trigger this email?

A. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every second and emails the
customer when a file is found.
B. Use OCI Events service and OCI Notification service to send an email each time a file is created.
C. Schedule a cron job that monitors the OCI Object Storage bucket and emails the customer when a new file
is created.
D. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every minute and emails the
customer when a file is found.

Answer: B
Section:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 5
A service you are deploying to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) uses
a docker image from a private repository in OCI Registry (OCIR).
Which configuration is necessary to provide access to this repository from OKE?

A. Create a dynamic group for nodes in the cluster, and a policy that allows the dynamic group to read
repositories in the same compartment.
B. Create a docker-registry secret for OCIR with API key credentials on the cluster, and specify the
imagePullSecret property in the application deployment manifest.
C. Add a generic secret on the cluster containing your identity credentials. Then specify a
registryCredentials property in the deployment manifest.
D. Create a docker-registry secret for OCIR with identity Auth Token on the cluster, and specify the
imagePullSecret property in the application deployment manifest.

Answer: D

DA0-001 CompTIA Data+ Exam

 

Exam Details
Exam Codes DA0-001
Launch Date
February 28, 2022
Exam Description The CompTIA Data+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to transform business requirements in support of data-driven decisions through mining and manipulating data, applying basic statistical methods, and analyzing complex datasets while adhering to governance and quality standards throughout the entire data life cycle.
Number of Questions 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 Minutes
Passing Score 675 (on scale of 100–900)

Recommended Experience CompTIA recommends 18–24 months of experience in a report/business analyst job role, exposure to databases and analytical tools, a basic understanding of statistics, and data visualization experience

Languages English
Retirement : Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE

CompTIA Data+ is an early-career data analytics certification for professionals tasked with developing and promoting data-driven business decision-making.

Differentiate yourself with Data+
Better Analyze and Interpret Data
Mine data more effectively. Analyze with rigor. Avoid confounding results.

Communicate Insights
Highlight what’s important. Produce reports that persuade, not confuse. Help the team make better data-driven decisions.

Demonstrate Competency
Make yourself a more valuable team member. Proof of data literacy means you’re more employable and more upwardly mobile.
What you’ll learn with Data+

CompTIA Data+ is now available!
CompTIA Data+ gives you the confidence to bring data analysis to life.

As the importance for data analytics grows, more job roles are required to set context and better communicate vital business intelligence. Collecting, analyzing, and reporting on data can drive priorities and lead business decision-making. CompTIA Data+ validates certified professionals have the skills required to facilitate data-driven business decisions, including:

Mining data
Manipulating data
Visualizing and reporting data
Applying basic statistical methods
Analyzing complex datasets while adhering to governance and quality standards throughout the entire data life cycle


What Skills Will You Learn?

HARDWARE
Data Concepts and Environments

Boost your knowledge in identifying basic concepts of data schemas and dimensions while understanding the difference between common data structures and file formats

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
Data Mining

Grow your skills to explain data acquisition concepts, reasons for cleansing and profiling datasets, executing data manipulation, and understanding techniques for data manipulation

SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Data Analysis

Gain the ability to apply the appropriate descriptive statistical methods and summarize types of analysis and critical analysis techniques

NETWORKING
Visualization

Learn how to translate business requirements to form the appropriate visualization in the form of a report or dashboard with the proper design components

NETWORKING
Data Governance, Quality, & Controls

Increase your ability to summarize important data governance concepts and apply data quality control concepts

Jobs that use CompTIA Data+
Data Analyst

Clinical Analyst
Reporting Analyst

Marketing Analyst
Business Data Analyst

Operations Analyst
Business Intelligence Analyst

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology and Data & Analytics is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving solutions and remain a sought-after analyst expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Data+ certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs to renew your CompTIA Data+ certification. Collect at least 20 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your CompTIA Data+ certification will automatically renew.

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed by CompTIA for the CompTIA certification candidate. Self-paced study guides are:

Reviewed extensively to ensure 100% coverage of the CompTIA exam objectives
Clearly written and structured
Flexible, so you can learn at any pace

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options. Two common ones are:

Basic Bundle – study on your own with the confidence of a free exam retake
Exam Prep Bundle – acquire knowledge and practice your new skills, with the confidence of a free exam retake

 

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the clustering technique needs the merging approach?

A. Hierarchical
B. Partitioned
C. Both A and C
D. Naive Bayes

Answer: A
Explanation
C is the correct answer. The hierarchical type of clustering is one of the most commonly used methods to analyze social network data. In this type of clustering method, multiple nodes are compared with each other on the basis of their similarities and several larger groups' are formed by merging the nodes or groups of nodes that have similar characteristics.

---

QUESTION 2
Your friend is an analyst for a sporting venue. She wants to distill post-event free-response survey data to inform leadership what respondents have on their minds. What type of visualization should she choose?

A. Dashboard
B. Pie chart
C. Word cloud
D. Bar chart

Answer: C
Explanation
C is the correct answer. Using a word cloud to signify the relative importance and commonality of words is the best approach.

---

QUESTION 3
Your friend is exploring how an athlete's weight impacts their time in a 400-meter run. What should she use to determine whether weight has an impact on the time it takes to run 400 meters?

A. Z-test
B. t-test
C. Simple linear regression
D. Chi-square test

Answer: C
Explanation
C is the correct answer. Simple linear regression explores the relationship between two variables, in this case the weight of an athlete and their time in a 400-meter run. Both the Z-test and t-test infer attributes of the population using sample data. A Chi-square test explores the relationship between categorical variables.

---

QUESTION 4
Your friend is a financial analyst who wants to use Microsoft Excel to perform what-if analysis on data extracted from his corporate accounting system. To make the data extract easy to import, which of the following file formats should he specify?

A. JSON
B. YAML
C. XML
D. CSV

Answer: D
Explanation
A is the correct answer. A comma-separated values file can be imported natively into a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet. While Excel is capable of reading the other listed file formats, the data would not be processed into neatly organized rows and columns.

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QUESTION 5
Your colleague wants to understand which product costs the least. What aggregate function can she use in her SQL query to get this answer?

A. AVG
B. MIN
C. MAX
D. COUNT

Answer: B
Explanation
C is the correct answer. COUNT will return the number of rows. MAX will return the largest value, while AVG will return the average of a numeric column. The MIN function returns the smallest value.

---

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the hierarchical clustering?

A. The choice of an appropriate metric can influence the shape of the cluster
B. In general, the splits and merges both are determined in a greedy manner
C. The hierarchical type of clustering is also known as the HCA
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Explanation
D is the correct answer. All following statements given in the above question are incorrect, so the correct answer is D. Hierarchical clustering, also known as hierarchical cluster analysis, is an algorithm that groups similar objects into groups called clusters.

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QUESTION 7
Your friend want to understand how well his team measures up against corporate sales goals. What type of analysis will give him the perspective he needs?

A. Performance
B. Exploratory data
C. Link
D. Trend
A. Arbitration
B. Acquisition
C. Merger
D. Compliance

Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Performance analysis assesses measurements against defined goals. Trend analysis compares data over time, exploratory data analysis uses descriptive statistics to summarize data and provide context for ongoing analysis, and link analysis explores connection patterns between data points.

---

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is not a situation that leads to pursuing master data management?

A. Arbitration
B. Acquisition
C. Merger
D. Compliance

Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Acquisitions, mergers, and compliance activities are all situations that can cause an organization to pursue MDM. Arbitration is a process what settles organizational disputes and is not likely to lead to MDM activities.

---

QUESTION 9
Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data?

A. Unsupervised learning
B. Supervised learning
C. Hybrid learning
D. Reinforcement learning

Answer: A
Explanation
B is the correct answer. Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data.

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QUESTION 10
What is a hypothesis?

A. A theory that underpins the study
B. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by chance
C. A research question the results will answer
D. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study

Answer: D
Explanation
A is the correct answer. A hypothesis is a proposition that a researcher wishes to evaluate using data from a study. A hypothesis is a conclusion reached after considering evidence. This is the first step in any investigation, where the research questions are translated into a prediction. Variables, population, and the relationship between the variables are all included. A research hypothesis is a hypothesis that is tested to see if two or more variables have a relationship.

NS0-175 Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design Exam

 

Cisco and NetApp FlexPod certification
You are proficient in designing and installing FlexPod® solutions for a variety of business workloads. FlexPod solutions speed the deployment of infrastructure and business-critical applications while reducing cost, complexity, and risk.

NetApp offers two Cisco® and NetApp® FlexPod certifications: FlexPod Design Specialist and FlexPod Implementation and Administration Specialist.

FlexPod logos and certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass either of the following:

Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design (NS0-175) certification exam.
Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Implementation and Administration (NS0-176) certification exam.

Prepare for your exam
Candidates for FlexPod® certification should have at least six to 12 months of field experience working with the tools and standards for assessing FlexPod computing solution performance characteristics and requirements. They should also understand the hardware components associated with the Cisco® and NetApp® FlexPod solution and the process for selecting proper hardware for a given set of requirements.

NS0-175 Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design Specialist

Recommended Training and Resources:
FlexPod Fundamentals
Technical Positioning of FlexPod Solutions
NS0-175 practice test
View exam topics
Register for your exam

Take your exam
NS0-175 exam includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 90 minutes to complete. In countries where English is not the native language, candidates will be granted a 30-minute extension to the allotted examination completion time.

The NS0-175 exam covers the following topics:

Flexpod Design
Describe FlexPod components based upon customer workloads
Describe how to size a solution based on customer requirements in accordance with FlexPod best practices
Describe the support options for FlexPod

Networking
Describe Cisco networking components used within FlexPod designs
Demonstrate knowledge of FlexPod networking configurations

Security
Describe access control methods for FlexPod solutions
Describe the considerations in building a secure multitenancy design

Tools
Describe resources for determining supported FlexPod components
Demonstrate knowledge of using tools for managing FlexPod
Demonstrate knowledge of troubleshooting methodologies for FlexPod solutions

QUESTION 1
You are sizing a FlexPod Datacenter solution for multitenancy use.
What are two important platform scaling considerations in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. maximum NetApp ONTAP cluster limits
B. maximum NetApp ONTAP storage VM limits
C. maximum Cisco vPC interfaces between Fabric Interconnects
D. maximum Cisco L1, L2 interfaces between Fabric Interconnects

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
You are developing a FlexPod solution with a MetroCluster IP as the storage solution.
In this scenario, which two components are supported? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp AFF C190
B. Cisco Nexus 3524-X/XL
C. Cisco Nexus 3232C
D. NetApp AFF A400

Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 3
You are asked to evaluate SaaS-based monitoring solutions for your FlexPod environment. Other than being
SaaS-delivered, selection criteria include full lifecycle management, environment automation, and the ability to
monitor third-party storage that is salted for retirement.
In this scenario, which product satisfies the requirements?

A. NetApp Cloud Insights
B. NetApp OnCommand Insight
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. Cisco Intersight

Correct Answer: A

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C_ACTIVATE13 SAP Certified Associate - SAP Activate Project Manager Exam

Delivery Methods: SAP Certification
Level: Associate
Exam: 80 questions
Cut Score: 65%
Duration: 180 mins
Languages: English, Japanese, Russian, Chinese

Description
The "SAP Certified Associate - SAP Activate Project Manager" certification exam verifies that the candidate has the knowledge required in the area of SAP project management. This certificate builds on basic consultant skills and experience that is then refined by practical experience during several projects. This exam validates whether SAP focused project managers have advanced business skills and the ability to apply methodologies and tools. Aside from advanced communication and presentation skills, this certificate also verifies that the project manager has skills to manage internal and external stakeholders, basic knowledge of change management processes, and communicating these processes to others. This exam validates that project manager can successfully manage the end-to-end transition of the project from Sales to Realization, can develop roadmaps for project execution, and understand testing and quality management. In particular for SAP related projects, the exam verifies that the Project Manager can apply the SAP Activate Methodology.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Agile Project Delivery > 12%
Describe how the project team prepares release and sprint plans, and the structure and key activities in each sprint. Discuss key techniques used in agile projects

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
ACT200 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)

SAP Activate Overview > 12%
Define factors influencing SAP Activate, its purpose and place among other frameworks

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

SAP Activate Elements > 12%
Provide an overview of content, tools and methodology elements of SAP Activate Solution Implementation Framework. Include Fit to Standard

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Workstreams Overview > 12%
Describe concepts, artefact flows, accelerators, tools and roles for each Workstream within SAP Activate Methodology

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Agile Project Planning 8% - 12%
Describe the agile project roles and responsibilities and the preparation of the project including the planning, estimation, user story mapping and construction of backlog

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
ACT200 (SEE COURSE DETAIL)

Transition Path "New Implementation SAP S/4HANA Cloud" 8% - 12%
Describe concepts, landscape overview, and specifics in Workstreams related to implementing SAP S/4HANA Cloud.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Transition Path "System Conversion" < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to “System Conversion” Transition Path.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Transition Path "Selective Data Transition" < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to “Selective Data Transition” Transition Path.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

Transition Path "New Implementation SAP S/4HANA On Premise" < 8%
Describe concepts, landscape overview and specifics in Workstreams related to implementing SAP S/4HANA On Premise.

ACT100 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)

General Information

Exam Preparation
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our FAQs.

SAP Global Certification FAQ - Overview
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Exam Process
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Post-Exam Process

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Security Guidelines

QUESTION 1
In which phase do you run the User Acceptance Test?

A. Deploy
B. Realize
C. Final Preparation
D. Build and Test

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which collaboration features can SAP Jam users access in the SAP Methodologies Jam group? (Choose two.)

A. Ask questions
B. Update Key Deliverable wikis
C. Tweet questions
D. Comment on Key Deliverables

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
What is the primary purpose of the SAP Activate Methodology?

A. To provide the sequence of actions in the project
B. To enable access to the SAP Ecosystem
C. To provide end-to-end Application Lifecycle Management
D. To manage solution documentation

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are defining the Testing Strategy for your project. What would you include in a Scope of Integration test?

A. The connectivity between database and application servers
B. The functionality of End-to-End business processes
C. The functionality of Modular Process
D. The network communication

Correct Answer: B

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C1000-130 IBM Certified Administrator - Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Exam

 

Certification Overview

An IBM Certified Administrator on IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 is an experienced system administrator who has extensive knowledge and experience with IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 in multi-cloud environments. This administrator can perform the intermediate to advanced tasks related to daily management and operation, security, performance, configuration of enhancements (including fix packs and patches), customization and/or problem determination.

Requirements
Exam C1000-130: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Administration
Exam Objectives
Number of questions: 62
Number of questions to pass: 42
Time allowed: 90 minutes
Status: Live

Group: IBM Cloud - Integration and Development
Certification status: Live
PartnerWorld code: C0005101
Replaces PW code: C0005100
Required exam: IBM Cloud Pak for Integration V2021.2 Administration
Exam status: Live

Section 1: Planning and Installation
Understand system requirements
Understand cloud-based installation specifics
Install the IBM Cloud Pak for Integration cluster
Install and configure Identity and Access Management (ZEN)
Perform post-installation activities
Uninstall IBM Cloud Pak for Integration

Section 2: Configuration
Deploy and configure an instance of API Connect
Deploy and configure an instance of App Connect
Deploy and configure an instance of DataPower
Deploy and configure an instance of MQ
Deploy and configure a product instance of Aspera
Deploy and configure add-on capabilities

Section 3: Platform Administration
Understand general administration
Understand OpenShift built-in platform administration capabilities
Administer Cloud Pak foundational services
Perform Cloud Pak platform upgrades
Build a CI/CD for Cloud Pak for Integration using OpenShift Pipelines and OpenShift GitOps

Section 4: Product capabilities, licensing and governess
Describe the product capabilities of Cloud Pak for Integration
Understand the licensing mechanisms
Configure license service and license service reporter

Section 3: Product Administration and Troubleshooting
Upgrade CP4I Capabilities, Foundational & Common Services, and OpenShift
Understand product-specific scaling
Use platform tracing feature to diagnose application problems
Understand logging to troubleshoot platform issues
Troubleshoot Cloud Pak for Integration operators
Troubleshoot Cloud Pak for Integration using platform command line capabilities

Exam Resources
All IBM certification tests presume a certain amount of "on-the-job" experience which is not present in any classroom or Web presentation. The recommended courses and links will help you gain the skill and product knowledge represented in the test objectives. They do not teach the answers to the test questions and are not intended to do so. This information may not cover all subject areas in the certification test or may contain more recent information than is present in the certification test. Taking these or any classes will not guarantee that you will achieve certification.
 

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