NSE5_FMG-7.0 Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0 Exam

 

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0

Exam series: NSE5_FMG-7.0
Number of questions: 35
Exam time: 70 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiManager 7.0
Status: Available Available

Exam details: exam description

NSE 5 Certification
The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security devices. We recommend this course for network and security analysts who require
the expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices. Visit the Fortinet NSE Certification
Program page for information about certification requirements.

Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0
The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is part of the NSE 5 Network Security Analyst program, and recognizes the successfu* candidate’s knowledge of and expertise with FortiManager.
The exam tests applied knowledge of FortiManager configuration, operation, and day-to-day administration, and includes operationa* scenarios, system configuration, device registration, and troubleshooting.

Audience
The Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0 exam is intended for network and security analysts who are responsible for centralized network administration of many FortiGate devices using FortiManager.

Exam Details
Exam name Fortinet NSE 5—FortiManager 7.0
Exam series NSE5_FMG-7.0
Time allowed 70 minutes

Exam Topics
Successfu* candidates have applied knowledge and skills in the following areas and tasks:

* Administration
* Perform initia* configuration
* Configure administrative domains (ADOMs)
* Device Manager
* Register devices in ADOMs
* Instal* configuration changes using scripts
* Diagnose issues using the revision history
* Policy and objects
* Configure different administrative access levels using the workspace
* Perform policy and object management
* Identify ADOM revisions and database versions
* Perform the import and installation methods
* Advanced configuration
* Configure various management panes and extensions
* Implement and troubleshoot FortiManager HA
* Configure FortiGuard services
* Use the globa* ADOM to envelop policy packages
* Troubleshooting
* Troubleshoot FortiManager deployment scenarios
* Troubleshoot import and installation issues
* Troubleshoot policy and object management
* Troubleshoot device settings

Training Resources
The following resources are recommended for attaining the knowledge and skills that are covered on the exam. The recommended training is available as a foundation for exam preparation. In addition to training, candidates are
strongly encouraged to have hands-on experience with the exam topics and objectives.

NSE Training Institute Courses
* NSE 5 FortiManager 7.0

Other Resources
* FortiManager Administration Guide 7.0.1
* FortiManager New Features Guide 7.0.0
* FortiManager CLI Reference 7.0.1

Experience
* Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Exam Sample Questions

Experience
Minimum of six months to one year of hands-on experience with FortiGate and FortiManager

Who this course is for:
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 7.0

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---

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about the scheduled backup of FortiManager are true? (Choose two.)

A. It does not back up firmware images saved on FortiManager.
B. It can be configured using the CLI and GUI.
C. It backs up all devices and the FortiGuard database.
D. It supports FTP, SCP, and SFTP.

Explanation:

Answer: AD
Reference:
https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/collections/fortinet/fortimanager/fmgr_system_backup_alls
ettings_module.html

---

QUESTION 2
In addition to the default ADOMs, an administrator has created a new ADOM named Training for FortiGate devices. The administrator sent a device registration to FortiManager from a remote FortiGate. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The FortiGate will be added automatically to the default ADOM named FortiGate.
B. The FortiGate will be automatically added to the Training ADOM.
C. By default, the unregistered FortiGate will appear in the root ADOM.
D. The FortiManager administrator must add the unregistered device manually to the unregistered device
manually to the Training ADOM using the Add Device wizard

Explanation:

Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager.0.0/administrationguide/
718923/root-adom

---

QUESTION 3
You are moving managed FortiGate devices from one ADOM to a new ADOM.
Which statement correctly describes the expected result?

A. Any pending device settings will be installed automatically
B. Any unused objects from a previous ADOM are moved to the new ADOM automatically
C. The shared policy package will not be moved to the new ADOM
D. Policy packages will be imported into the new ADOM automaticallyD
Answer: C

Explanation:


Reference: https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiManager/Technical-Note-How-to-move-objectsto-
new-ADOM-on-FortiManager/ta-p342

---

QUESTION 4
In the event that the primary FortiManager fails, which of the following actions must be performed to return the FortiManager HA to a working state?

A. Secondary device with highest priority will automatically be promoted to the primary role, and manually reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device
B. Reboot one of the secondary devices to promote it automatically to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
C. Manually promote one of the secondary devices to the primary role, and reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device.
D. FortiManager HA state transition is transparent to administrators and does not require any reconfiguration.

Answer: C

Explanation:
FortiManager_6.4_Study_Guide-Online" page 346

Explanation:
FortiManager HA doesn’t support IP takeover where an HA state transition is transparent to administrators. If a failure of the primary occurs, the administrator must take corrective action to resolve the problem that may include invoking the state transition. If the primary device fails, the administrator must do the following in order to return the FortiManager HA to a working state:
1. Manually reconfigure one of the secondary devices to become the primary device
2. Reconfigure all other secondary devices to point to the new primary device

1Z0-1047-22 Oracle Absence Management Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

 

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: $245
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy:Cloud Recertification Earn associated certifications

Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Absence Management Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1047-22
An Oracle Absence Management Cloud 2021 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated the knowledge required to implement, configure, and use Oracle Absence Management Cloud for your enterprise. Individuals who earn this certification are able to identify key concepts of absence management, identify the setup components of absence management, create accrual and qualification absence plans, and much more.

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Oracle Absence Management Cloud Overview
Describe the main features of Absence Management
Describe the setup components of Absence Management
Describe the difference between Absence Type and Absence Plan
Describe the types of absence plans available in Absence Management

Absence Accrual Plans
Explain the absence management processes related to accrual plans
Set up derived factors
Configure eligibility profiles
Create a repeating time period
Create absence accrual plans

Absence Qualification Plans
Describe the plans terms available for qualification plans
Explain the absence management processes related to qualification plans
Identify the components for the qualification entitlements display
Create absence qualification plans

Absence Types
Describe the impact of work schedules on absence duration calculations
Explain absence type patterns and display features
Create a work schedule (including Public Holidays) and assign to employee(s)
Create absence types
Schedule absences using the Absence Self-Service pages

Certification Action Items
Describe the types and usages of certification action items
Configure Certifications (document and entitlement change types)
Set up Certifications (document and entitlement change types) within Absence Type
Manage Absence Certifications (schedule process, track due dates, status, etc.)

Administration Tasks
Administering plan enrollments and adjustments
Create, maintain and recalculate absence records
Explain and execute Absence Management processes

Payroll Integration
Describe the setup tasks required to integrate with Global Payroll
Integrate Absence Management and Global Payroll
Set up rate definitions in Absence Management

Compensatory and Donation Plans
Explain Compensatory Time plan rules
Explain Donation plan rules
Create Compensatory time and Donation plans

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---

QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about absence patterns?

A. You can modify the content of an absence pattern using thetask "Manage Absence Patterns."?
B. Absence patterns help to visualize the trend or pattern of absence entries for a worker.
C. Absence patterns control the fields that appear in the Manage Absence Types setup page.
D. "Sickness"? is one of the available absence patterns.

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 2
Which three are true statements about Absence and Payroll integration?

A. The Absence Element Template creates all of the attributes required to process absences through payroll.
B. The options available for configuration vary depending on the legislation chosen when creating absence plans.
C. The setup required in payroll may vary depending on payroll localization.
D. The options available for configuration are the same for all the legislations when creating absence plans.

Answer: A,B,C

---

QUESTION 3
A worker is scheduled to work from Monday to Friday. As an HR administrator, you receive a call from
the worker on Friday evening 16-Jun-2017, that they are on vacation from 17-Jun-2017 (Saturday)
and will be back at work on 26-Jun-2017 (Monday). The absence type for vacation has no duration
formula or plans attached and the duration is measured in Days. There is a calendar exception on 23-
Jun-2017 (Friday).

What should bethestart date, enddate, and theduration of thisabsence record if the "Schedule
nonworking days"? is set to "Not enabled"??

A. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 22-Jun-2017Duration: 4
B. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 8
C. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 4
D. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 26-Jun-2017Duration: 10
E. Start Date: 19-Jun-2017End Date: 26-Jun-2017Duration: 5
F. Start Date: 17-Jun-2017End Date: 25-Jun-2017Duration: 9

Answer: F

---

QUESTION 4
Acustomer requiresthat theiremployees entertheirvacation/holiday with some periodrestrictions:
the absence record can be entered only 3 months before the system day and 2 months in advance
based on system day. Administrators and managers entering the vacation on behalf of employees
won"?t have thisrestriction.
Which configuration should you use to implement these requirements?

A. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Define Absence start date validation according to the requirements.4) Enable
Absence start date validation for employee self-service transaction.

B. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Define Absence start date validation according to the requirements.4) Enable
Absence start date validation for employees, managers, and administrators.

C. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative, manager, and
employee updates.3) Create an eligibility formula with the logic required and add it to the absence type.

D. 1) Create an absence type using a generic pattern.2) Enable administrative and employee
updates.3) Create an eligibilityformula withthelogicrequired and add it to the absence type.

Answer: A

---

QUESTION 5
When an absence gets approved before its start date, what status does it change to?

A. Saved
B. In Progress
C. Reviewed
D. Accepted
E. Completed
F. Scheduled

Answer: F
 

700-846 Cisco IoT Advantage for Account Managers Exam

 

Exam overview
This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco’s IoT strategy, IoT products, and industry specific sales plays.

Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Exam preparation Official Cisco training

Cisco IoT Advantage for Account Managers
Cisco Partners can access Sales Connect for access to a variety of training content to help them prepare for this exam.

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IoT Advantage for Account Managers v1.0 (IOTAM 700-846) tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco’s IoT strategy, IoT products, and industry specific sales plays. The course Cisco IoT Advantage for Account Managers helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

10% 1.0 Cisco IoT Strategy and Products
1.1 Describe Cisco IoT strategy
1.2 Explain positioning for Cisco IoT products
1.3 Describe the programs and incentives of Cisco IoT

10% 2.0 Extended Enterprise Sales Motion
2.1 Understand the Extended Enterprise sales play and opportunity
2.2 Describe use cases for Extended Enterprise
2.3 Explain the features of Extended Enterprise solutions

10% 3.0 Manufacturing
3.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the manufacturing industry
3.2 Describe the IoT use cases in manufacturing
3.3 Explain product positioning for manufacturing use cases

10% 4.0 Utilities
4.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the utility industry
4.2 Describe the IoT use cases in utilities
4.3 Explain product positioning for utility use cases

10% 5.0 Oil and Gas
5.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the oil and gas industry
5.2 Describe the IoT use cases in oil and gas
5.3 Explain product positioning for oil and gas use cases

10% 6.0 Transportation
6.1 Explain the concerns and challenges for roadways and intersections
6.2 Describe the IoT use cases in roadways and intersections
6.3 Explain product positioning for roadway and intersection use cases

10% 7.0 Mining
7.1 Explain the concerns and challenges of the mining industry
7.2 Describe the IoT use cases in mining
7.3 Explain product positioning for mining use cases

20% 8.0 Products and Technologies
8.1 Describe how CUWRB addresses customer challenges with wireless connectivity in IoT deployments
8.2 Describe the capabilities, value proposition, and design considerations for CUWRB
8.3 Identify and qualify CUWRB opportunities
8.4 Explain the value proposition of Cisco’s industrial security portfolio
8.5 Explain positioning of Cisco industrial security with stakeholders
8.6 Describe the key features and value of Cyber Vision
8.7 Explain management tool positioning for use cases to meet customer requirements

10% 9.0 IoT Operations Dashboard
9.1 Explain the key benefits of deploying IoT Operations Dashboard
9.2 Describe services of the IoT Operations Dashboard
9.3 Describe the key features and benefits of Industrial Asset Vision
9.4 Describe the main use cases for Industrial Asset Vision
9.5 Describe the capabilities of Edge Intelligence
9.6 Explain value proposition and use cases of Edge Intelligence
 

QUESTION 1
What does the term FMS stand for in mining environments?

A. Fleet Management System
B. Freight Management Sorter
C. Free Mainline Security
D. For Master Support

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 2
Which IE switch is recommended for airport jetways?

A. IE3000
B. IE2000
C. IE3400
D. IE3200

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/switches/catalyst-ie3400-rugged-series/index.html

---

QUESTION 3
Which product series has ultra-high performance featuring enhanced security and available Cyber
Vision for Industrial Control Systems visibility is SD-WAN and Edge compute enabled, is a Precision
Timing Source and is Utility certified?

A. IR1101
B. IR1800 Rugged Series Routers
C. Catalyst IR8100 Heavy Duty Series Routers
D. Catalyst IR8300 Rugged Series

Answer: D

---

QUESTION 4
How do converged networks provide the most significant impact in a typical manufacturing factory"?

A. reduced downtime
B. plant safety
C. machine safety
D. better fleet operations

Answer: D

1Z0-1057-22 Oracle Project Management Cloud 2022 Implementation Professional Exam

 

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Number of Questions: 55
Passing Score: 60%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 22A/22B
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Project Management Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional

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Prepare to pass exam: 1Z0-1057-22
An Oracle Project Management Cloud 2022 Certified Implementation Professional has demonstrated expertise in implementing Oracle Project Management Cloud solutions. Individuals who earn this certification are familiar with Common Project Configuration, Project Foundation, Project Control, Project Costing, Project Billing, Project Performance Reporting, Project Management, Program Management, and Project resource management.

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience), in the learning subscription, provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics

Project Management Overview
Describe the components of Oracle Project Management Cloud
Explain the components available for integration

Navigation, User Experience, Personalization and Approvals
Describe the business processes that are supported by approvals and workflows
Set up approval and notification tasks
Describe Navigation, User Experience and Personalization Concepts

Applications Security Overview
Describe the Applications Security Console
Identify the roles delivered in a seeded security implementation
Manage roles and duties

Functional Setup Manager
Describe Functional Setup Manager
Describe the Rapid Implementation Workbook

Common Project configuration
Manage Subledger Accounting
Set up Project Financial Management Organizations
Manage Reference Data Sharing

Configure Project Foundation
Set up Project Calendars and Periods
Setup Types and Categorizations
Manage Project Resources
Describe Rate Schedules
Describe Project Types
Set up Transaction Sources
Labor Schedule

Configure Project Costing
Configure Project Cost Collection Center
Manage Burdening
Manage Allocations
Explain capitalized interest calculations
Describe Budgetary Controls
Configure Time & Labor for projects
Manage Integrations

Configure Project Control
Manage Project Budgets and Forecasts

Configure Project Billing
Configure Project Cross Charging and Transfer Pricing
Configure and Manage Project Invoicing and Revenue

Configure Project Performance Reporting
Configure and Manage Key Performance Indicators for Project Performance Reporting

Configure Project Management
Describe common project execution components
Manage Issues and Deliverables
Describe project requirements
Configure Social Network for Project Execution
Manage Project Gates
Use Application Composer for Project Execution Management

Configure Project Resource Management
Define Project Enterprise Labor Resources

Program Management
Program Management and Reporting

---

QUESTION 1
A consulting services company is currently working on a business transformation project for your
client, which spans multiple years. At the first period close, the consulting services company has
recognized revenue and the accounting entry created is:
DrUnbilledReceivables40,000
Cr Revenue 40,000
At the end of the period, the client is sent an associated bill. What would be the corresponding
invoice accounting entry? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Dr Unearned Revenue 40,000Cr Accounts Receivables 40,000
B. Dr Accounts Receivables 40,000Cr Unbilled Receivables 40,000
C. Dr Accounts Receivables 40,000Cr Revenue 40,000
D. Dr Unearned Revenue 40,000Cr Revenue 40,000

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
You want to export your project plan to Oracle Project Financial Management Cloud after initial
scheduling iscompletein Microsoft Projects. Identify three conditions that must be met for exporting
milestone tasks. (Choose three.)

A. only one labor resource assignment with 100 effort
B. lowest-level tasks set up with non-zero duration
C. lowest-level tasks set up with zero duration
D. only one labor resource assignment with 0 effort
E. percent work complete values of 0 or 100 percent

Answer: C, D, E

---

QUESTION 3
Yourcustomer wants to automatically allocate unassigned asset lines and common costs across
multiple assets based on the construction-in-process cost of each asset. Identify the asset allocation
method that you must use as the default method while configuring project types to meet this
requirement. (Choose the bestanswer.)

A. Standard Unit Cost
B. Actual Unit
C. Current Cost
D. Estimated Cost
E. Spread Evenly

Answer: C

SC-100 Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect Exam

 

Exam SC-100: Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: design a Zero Trust strategy and architecture; evaluate Governance Risk Compliance (GRC) technical strategies and security operations strategies; design security for infrastructure; and design a strategy for data and applications.

Candidates for this exam should have advanced experience and knowledge in a wide range of security engineering areas, including identity and access, platform protection, security operations, securing data, and securing applications. They should also have experience with hybrid and cloud implementations.

Skills measured
Download the study guide in the preceding “Tip” box for more details about the skills measured on this exam.
Design a Zero Trust strategy and architecture (30–35%)
Evaluate Governance Risk Compliance (GRC) technical strategies and security operations strategies (20–25%)
Design security for infrastructure (20–25%)
Design a strategy for data and applications (20–25%)

Audience Profile
The Microsoft cybersecurity architect has subject matter expertise in designing and evolving the cybersecurity strategy to protect an organization’s mission and business processes across all aspects of the enterprise architecture. The cybersecurity architect designs a Zero Trust strategy and architecture, including security strategies for data, applications, access management, identity, and infrastructure. The cybersecurity architect also evaluates Governance Risk Compliance (GRC) technical strategies and security operations strategies.

The cybersecurity architect continuously collaborates with leaders and practitioners in IT security, privacy, and other roles across an organization to plan and implement a cybersecurity strategy that meets the business needs of an organization.

A candidate for this certification should have advanced experience and knowledge in a wide range of security engineering areas including identity and access, platform protection, security operations, securing data and securing applications. They should also have experience with hybrid and cloud implementations.

To earn the Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect certification, candidates must also pass one of the following exams: SC-200, SC-300, AZ-500, or MS-500. We strongly recommend that you do this before taking this exam.

Topic Covered :

NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. Related topics may be covered in the exam.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are in general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.


This practice test covers following topics:

Design a Zero Trust strategy and architecture (30–35%)

Build an overall security strategy and architecture
• identify the integration points in an architecture by using Microsoft Cybersecurity Reference Architecture (MCRA)
• translate business goals into security requirements
• translate security requirements into technical capabilities, including security services, security products, and security processes
• design security for a resiliency strategy
• integrate a hybrid or multi-tenant environment into a security strategy
• develop a technical and governance strategy for traffic filtering and segmentation

Design a security operations strategy
• design a logging and auditing strategy to support security operations
• develop security operations to support a hybrid or multi-cloud environment
• design a strategy for SIEM and SOAR
• evaluate security workflows
• evaluate a security operations strategy for incident management lifecycle
• evaluate a security operations strategy for sharing technical threat intelligence

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Design an identity security strategy

Note: includes hybrid and multi-cloud
• design a strategy for access to cloud resources
• recommend an identity store (tenants, B2B, B2C, hybrid)
• recommend an authentication strategy
• recommend an authorization strategy
• design a strategy for conditional access
• design a strategy for role assignment and delegation
• design security strategy for privileged role access to infrastructure including identity- based firewall rules, Azure PIM
• design security strategy for privileged activities including PAM, entitlement management, cloud tenant administration

Evaluate Governance Risk Compliance (GRC) technical strategies and security operations strategies (20–25%)

Design a regulatory compliance strategy
• interpret compliance requirements and translate into specific technical capabilities (new or existing)
• evaluate infrastructure compliance by using Microsoft Defender for Cloud
• interpret compliance scores and recommend actions to resolve issues or improve security
• design implementation of Azure Policy
• design for data residency requirements
• translate privacy requirements into requirements for security solutions

Evaluate security posture and recommend technical strategies to manage risk
• evaluate security posture by using benchmarks (including Azure security benchmarks, ISO 2701, etc.)
• evaluate security posture by using Microsoft Defender for Cloud
• evaluate security posture by using Secure Scores
• evaluate security posture of cloud workloads
• design security for an Azure Landing Zone
• interpret technical threat intelligence and recommend risk mitigations
• recommend security capabilities or controls to mitigate identified risks

Design security for infrastructure (20–25%)
Design a strategy for securing server and client endpoints

NOTE: includes hybrid and multi-cloud
• specify security baselines for server and client endpoints
• specify security requirements for servers, including multiple platforms and operating systems
• specify security requirements for mobile devices and clients, including endpoint protection, hardening, and configuration
• specify requirements to secure Active Directory Domain Services
• design a strategy to manage secrets, keys, and certificates
• design a strategy for secure remote access

Design a strategy for securing SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS services
• specify security baselines for SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS services
• specify security requirements for IoT workloads
• specify security requirements for data workloads, including SQL, Azure SQL Database, Azure Synapse, and Azure Cosmos DB
• specify security requirements for web workloads, including Azure App Service
• specify security requirements for storage workloads, including Azure Storage
• specify security requirements for containers
• specify security requirements for container orchestration

Design a strategy for data and applications (20–25%)

Specify security requirements for applications
• specify priorities for mitigating threats to applications
• specify a security standard for onboarding a new application
• specify a security strategy for applications and APIs

Design a strategy for securing data
• specify priorities for mitigating threats to data
• design a strategy to identify and protect sensitive data
• specify an encryption standard for data at rest and in motion

This course is good enough to pass your exam at your first attempt easily.

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure subscription that contains virtual machines, storage accounts, and Azure SQL databases.
All resources are backed up multiple times a day by using Azure Backup. You are developing a strategy to
protect against ransomware attacks.
You need to recommend which controls must be enabled to ensure that Azure Backup can be used to
restore the resources in the event of a successtu\ ransonvwaTe attack.
Which two controls should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Use Azure Monitor notifications when backup configurations change.
B. Require PINs for critical operations.
C. Perform offline backups to Azure Data Box.
D. Encrypt backups by using customer-managed keys (CMKs).
E. Enable soft delete for backups.

Answer: B, C
 

---

QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription.
The Chief Compliance Officer plans to enhance privacy management in the working environment. You
need to recommend a solution to enhance the privacy management. The solution must meet the following requirements:
* Identify unused personal data and empower users to make smart data handling decisions.
* Provide users with notifications and guidance when a user sends personal data in Microsoft Teams.
* Provide users with recommendations to mitigate privacy risks.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Microsoft Viva Insights
B. Advanced eDiscovery
C. Privacy Risk Management in Microsoft Priva
D. communication compliance in insider risk management

Answer: A
 

---

QUESTION 3
Your company is moving a big data solution to Azure.
The company plans to use the following storage workloads:
? Azure Storage blob containers
? Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2
? Azure Storage file shares
? Azure Disk Storage
Which two storage workloads support authentication by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Disk Storage
B. Azure Storage blob containers
C. Azure Storage file shares
D. Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2

Answer: B, D
 

---

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution to scan the application code. The solution must meet the application
development requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Key Vault
B. GitHub Advanced Security
C. Application Insights in Azure Monitor
D. Azure DevTest Labs

Answer: D
 

---

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the virtual machine issue. What should you include in the
recommendation?

A. Onboard the virtual machines to Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.
B. Onboard the virtual machines to Azure Arc.
C. Create a device compliance policy in Microsoft Endpoint Manager.
D. Enable the Qualys scanner in Defender for Cloud.

Answer: A

MD-100 Windows 10 Exam Updated May 3, 2022

 

I offer you the best way to become a Windows desktop administrator. The MD-100 practice tests help you test your knowledge by mastering the methods and technologies for managing Windows 10 in an enterprise environment. This practice test will prepare you for the MD-100 Windows 10 certification exam, one of the exams required to obtain Microsoft 365 Certified certification: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate.

Skills measured
The English language version of this exam was updated on May 3, 2022. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.

Install and configure Windows (20–25%)
Configure and manage connectivity and storage (15–20%)
Maintain Windows (30–35%)
Protect devices and data (25–30%)

Who should take this course:
Anyone interested in taking the Windows 10 MD-100 exam or on the way to becoming a Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
Administrators who deploy, configure, protect, manage and monitor client devices and applications
IT professionals who manage identity, access, policies, updates and applications
Basic IT skills and basic knowledge and experience with the Windows network are required.

What you will learn:
This Practice Tests covers the full range of topics found in the Windows 10 MD-100 Exam, including:
Deploy Windows
Manage devices and data
Configure connectivity
Maintain Windows
Features and benefits when purchasing our Practice Tests:
You only buy once and have lifetime access.
Content updated frequently.
All exam objectives are addressed so that the student knows if he / she is prepared for the exam.
Performance-based practice tests provide the student with a better learning experience.
The timed person prepares the conditions for the "exam" with a graphical score at the end.
You have a 30-day refund if you don't like our practice tests for any reason.

IMPORTANT:

Unofficial testing practice.
We offer educational materials and practical tests to assist and help students prepare for these exams.

All certification marks used are the property of the respective owners of the marks.

We do not own or claim any ownership in any of the Marks

What you’ll learn
You will test your knowledge in the official topics of the md-100 exam, with hours of pratice tests.
At the end of each practice Tests you will have a graph with your score.
We have prepared the questions so that you feel safe when taking the official exam.
Practice tests with references and explanations help you reach your goal.

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
We recommend that the student has skills in the topics required in the official MD-100 exam.

Who this course is for:
This Practice Tests is recommended for anyone who wishes to pass the MD-100 exam.

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All users have been issued with new computers that run
Windows 10 Enterprise. All users have Microsoft 365 E3 licenses.
A user named Mia Hamm has an Active Directory user account named MHamm and a computer named
Computer1. Mia Hamm reports that Computer1 is not activated.
You need to ensure that Mia Hamm can activate Computer1.
What should you do?

A. Assign a Windows 10 Enterprise license to MHamm, and then activate Computer1.
B. From the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), redeploy Computer1.
C. From System Properties on Computer1, enter a Volume License Key, and then activate Computer1.
D. Instruct Mia Hamm to perform a local AutoPilot Reset on Computer1, and then activate Computer1.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain that is synced to a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
The company plans to purchase computers preinstalled with Windows 10 Pro for all users.
The company the following requirements:
The new computers must be upgraded to Windows 10 Enterprise automatically.
The new computers must be joined to Azure AD automatically when the user starts the new computers for the first time.
The users must not be required to accept the End User License Agreement (EULA).
You need to deploy the new computers.
What should you do?

A. Make use of the wipe and load refresh deployment method.
B. Perform in-place upgrade on the new computers.
C. Provide provisioning packages for the new computers.
D. Make use of Windows Autopilot.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your company is not connected to the internet. The company purchases several new computers with Windows
10 Pro for its users.
None of the new computers are activated.
You need to activate the computers without connecting the network to the Internet.
What should you do?

A. Make use of the Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT).
B. Make use of the Key Management Service (KMS).
C. Make use of the Windows Process Activation Service.
D. Run the Get-WmiObject -query cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All users have been issued with computers that run Windows 8.1.
A user named Mia Hamm has a computer named Computer1. You upgrade Computer1 to Windows 10 by
performing a clean installation of Windows 10 without formatting the drives.
You need to migrate the settings for Mia Hamm from Windows 8.1 to Windows 10.
Which two actions should you perform?
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Run scanstate.exe and specify the C:\Users folder
B. Run loadstate.exe and specify the C:\Windows.old folder
C. Run usmultils.exe and specify the C:\Users folder
D. Run scanstate.exe and specify the C:\Windows.old folder
E. Run loadstate.exe and specify the C:\Users folder
F. Run usmultils.exe and specify the C:\Windows.old folder

Answer: D,E

QUESTION 5
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You deploy an application named Application1 to Computer1.
You need to assign credentials to Application1.
You need to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the credentials for Application1 cannot be used by any user to log on to Computer1.
Ensure that the principle of least privilege is maintained.
What should you do?

A. Configure Application1 to sign in as the Local System account and select the Allow service to interact with desktop check box.
B. Create a user account for Application1 and assign that user account the Deny log on locally user right
C. Create a user account for Application1 and assign that user account the Deny log on as a service user right
D. Configure Application1 to sign in as the Local Service account and select the Allow service to interact with desktop check box.

Answer: B

The following table shows the changes that were implemented on May 3, 2022 to the English language version of this exam. Following the comparison table, the previous study guide is included for reference.

Old objective number Subtask changes and new location
1.0 Deploy Windows - Revised title
1.1 Install Windows 10 - Revised title and subtasks; split, added new subtasks
1.2 Perform post-installation configuration - Revised title and subtasks; split, added new subtasks; old 1.2 moved to 1.3
2.0 Manage devices and data - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.0
2.1 Manage users, groups, and devices - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.1
2.2 Configure devices by using local policies - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.2
2.3 Manage Windows security - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.3
3.0 Configure storage & connectivity - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 2.0
3.1 Configure networking - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 2.1
3.2 Configure data access and protection - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 2.2
4.0 Maintain Windows - Moved to 3.0
4.1 Configure system and data recovery - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 3.1
4.2 Manage updates - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 3.2
4.3 Monitor and manage Windows - Revised subtasks and moved to 3.4
4.4 Configure remote connectivity - Revised title and subtasks; moved to 4.3

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are administrators who deploy, configure, secure, manage, and monitor devices and client applications in an enterprise environment. Candidates manage identity, access, policies, updates, and apps.

As an administrator, candidates typically collaborate with the Microsoft 365 enterprise administrator to design and implement a device strategy that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
Candidates must be familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and must be proficient and experienced in deploying, configuring, and maintaining Windows 10 and non-Windows devices and technologies.
Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. Related topics may be covered in the exam.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Deploy Windows (15-20%)
Install Windows 10
• perform a clean installation
• perform an in-place upgrade from a previous version of Windows
• use Windows Deployment Services (WDS) to deploy Windows 10
• customize a Windows 10 installation using tools from the Windows ADK (Windows System Image Manager, Windows PE, Windows Configuration Designer)
• select the appropriate Windows edition

Perform post-installation configuration
• configure microsoft edge
• configure mobility settings
• customize the Windows desktop
• troubleshoot activation issues
• configure printers and external devices
• configure Windows 10 by using provisioning packages
• configure Microsoft Store settings
• configure Windows 10 built-in application settings
• configure and manage services

Manage devices and data (25-30%)
Manage users, groups, and devices
• manage local groups
• manage local users
• manage users, groups, and devices in Active Directory Domain Services
• manage users, groups, and devices in Azure Active Directory
• configure sign-in options
• add additional work or school accounts to Windows 10
• configure and manage Bluetooth settings for devices

Configure devices by using local policies
• implement local policy
• troubleshoot group policies on devices
• configure Windows 10 settings by using group policy

Manage Windows security
• configure user account control (UAC)
• configure Microsoft Defender Firewall
• implement device encryption
• configure Microsoft Defender Antivirus
• manage device security using core isolation, secure boot, and TPM

Configure storage and connectivity (15-20%)
Configure networking
• configure client IP settings
• configure mobile networking
• troubleshoot networking

Configure data access and protection
• configure NTFS permissions
• configure shared permissions
• configure local storage
• manage and optimize storage
• configure file and folder permissions
• configure OneDrive/OneDrive for Business

Maintain Windows (30-35%)
Configure system and data recovery
• perform file recovery
• recover Windows 10
• troubleshoot startup/boot process
• create and manage system restore points

Manage updates
• troubleshoot updates
• select and configure the appropriate servicing channel for feature updates
• configure Windows update options
• plan for types of windows updates including feature updates, quality updates, servicing stack updates, driver updates, and Microsoft product updates
• configure updates by using Windows Update for Business

Monitor and manage Windows
• configure and analyze event logs
• manage performance
• manage Windows 10 environment
• configure local registry
• schedule tasks

Configure remote connectivity
• manage Windows 10 remotely by using Windows Admin Center
• configure remote assistance tools including Remote Assist and Quick Assist
• manage Windows remotely by using Windows Remote Management and PS remoting
• configure remote desktop access

AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Exam Updated

 

Description
Welcome to the top quality AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure practice tests to help you prepare for your AZ-204 exam.

Updated explanations
Get AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure certification to take your career and salary to the next level.

I strongly recommend you to practice these AZ-204 practice tests to validate your learning before taking the real AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam.

These practice tests are designed just like the actual exam questions, covers every topic, with a difficulty level like a real exam.

This AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Practice Tests course offers the following features:
300 TOP-NOTCH Questions - The tone and tenor of the questions mimic the real exam along with the detailed explanations and reference links.
DETAILED EXPLANATIONS, REFERENCE LINKS - Every question has full and detailed explanation along with reference links to MS documentation.
ACTIVE Q&A DISCUSSION BOARD - You can post your queries to the QA section so we can discuss any queries.
VERY RESPONSIVE INSTRUCTOR - Most of your queries will be responded with in 24 hours.
ALWAYS UP TO DATE - These practice tests are constantly updated with new questions and based on the student's feedback.
CLEAR AND ERROR-FREE QUESTIONS - Every question is peer reviewed and verified with Grammarly.
PREPARED BY MULTI CLOUD CERTIFIED professional who actually passed the AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam!
ANDROID CELL PHONE -COMPATIBLE

These practice tests cover the following AZ-204 skills:
Develop Azure compute solutions (25-30%)
Develop for Azure storage (15-20%)
Implement Azure security (20-25%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize Azure solutions (15-20%)
Connect to and consume Azure services and third-party services (15-20%)

I wish you all the best for your learning and exam. See you inside the course.

What you’ll learn
Microsoft Azure AZ-204: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Practice Tests.
Prepares you for the AZ-204 Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure exam.
Gain Microsoft Certified Azure Developer Associate Certificate.
Learn AZ-204 exam concepts and AZ-204 exam pattern.


Skills measured
The English language version of this exam was updated on April 19, 2022. Download the study guide in the preceding “Tip” box for more details about the skills measured on this exam.

Develop Azure compute solutions (25-30%)
Develop for Azure storage (15-20%)
Implement Azure security (20-25%)
Monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize Azure solutions (15-20%)
Connect to and consume Azure services and third-party services (15-20%)

Are there any course requirements or prerequisites?
Basic Knowledge on Azure

Who this course is for:
Azure Developers eager to get AZ-204 Certification
Azure Developers keen to get Microsoft Certified Azure Developer Associate Certificate
Azure Developers

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QUESTION 1
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2. Host1 has an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that
was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager template.
You need to move VM1 to Host2.
What should you do?

A. From the Update management blade, click Enable.
B. From the Overview blade, move VM1 to a different subscription.
C. From the Redeploy blade, click Redeploy.
D. From the Profile blade, modify the usage location.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your company has an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster that you manage from an Azure AD-joined device.
The cluster is located in a resource group.
Developers have created an application named MyApp. MyApp was packaged into a container image.
You need to deploy the YAML manifest file for the application.
Solution: You install the Azure CLI on the device and run the kubectl apply '''?f myapp.yaml command.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company has an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster that you manage from an Azure AD-joined
device. The cluster is located in a resource group.
Developers have created an application named MyApp. MyApp was packaged into a container image.
You need to deploy the YAML manifest file for the application.
Solution: You install the docker client on the device and run the docker run -it microsoft/azurecli:
0.10.17 command.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your company has a web app named WebApp1.
You use the WebJobs SDK to design a triggered App Service background task that automatically invokes a
function in the code every time new data is received in a queue.
You are preparing to configure the service processes a queue data item.
Which of the following is the service you should use?

A. Logic Apps
B. WebJobs
C. Flow
D. Functions

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company has an Azure subscription.
You need to deploy a number of Azure virtual machines to the subscription by using Azure Resource Manager
(ARM) templates. The virtual machines will be included in a single availability set.
You need to ensure that the ARM template allows for as many virtual machines as possible to remain
accessible in the event of fabric failure or maintenance.
Which of the following is the value that you should configure for the platformFaultDomainCount property?

A. 10
B. 30
C. Min Value
D. Max Value

Answer: D