2V0-33.22 VMware Cloud Professional Exam

 

The VMware Cloud Professional (2V0-33.22) which leads to VMware Certified Professional - VMware Cloud 2022 (VCP-VMC 2022) certification is a 70-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled scoring method. Candidates are given 135 minutes to complete the exam, which includes adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.
Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) can successfully identify the key components of a VMware Cloud solution and how to support migrations from an on-premises data center into VMware Cloud (across different hyperscaler partners including VMware Cloud on AWS). The successful candidate understands the networking requirements to support VMware Cloud use cases and the benefit of VMware Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG). The successful candidate also has a basic understanding of storage concepts, security, business continuity and disaster recovery, as well as monitoring and troubleshooting, in a VMware Cloud environment. The successful candidate possesses most of the knowledge in the exam blueprint sections detailed below and may need to research some topis and require occasional assistance in carrying out some tasks.

Products/Technologies
This exam validates breadth of knowledge of VMware Cloud across different hyperscalers including:
VMware Cloud on AWS
VMware Cloud on Dell EMC
VMware Cloud on AWS Outposts
Google Cloud VMware Engine
Azure VMware Solution

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning and Optimization
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

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Sections Included in this Exam
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Explain the benefits of cloud computing
Objective 1.2 –Describe the functional components of a VMware Cloud solution
Objective 1.3 – Differentiate between VMware Cloud connectivity options
Objective 1.4 – Describe a cloud network architecture
Objective 1.5 – Describe networking in the software-defined data center (SDDC)
Objective 1.6 – Describe VMware SDDC components
Objective 1.7 – Explain Hybrid Linked Mode for the VMware SDDC
Objective 1.8 – Describe virtual machine components
Objective 1.9 – Describe VMware vSphere vMotion and vSphere Storage vMotion technology
Objective 1.10 – Explain a high availability and resilient infrastructure
Objective 1.11 – Describe the different backup and disaster recovery options for VMware Cloud
Objective 1.12 – Explain scaling options in VMware Cloud environments
Objective 1.13 – Identify authentication options for the VMware Cloud Services Portal
Objective 1.14 – Describe the purpose of using Kubernetes
Objective 1.15 – Describe use cases for VMware Cloud on Dell EMC and VMware Cloud on AWS Outposts

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Describe the VMware Cloud operating model
Objective 2.2 – Identify the role of other cloud services
Objective 2.3 – Explain the VMware multi-cloud vision
Objective 2.4 – Identify the appropriate backup or disaster recovery method for VMware Cloud given a scenario
Objective 2.5 – Describe how VMware and its hyperscaler partners address IT challenges
Objective 2.6 – Recognize VMware Cloud use cases
Objective 2.7 – Describe the function of VMware HCX
Objective 2.8 – Explain the NSX architecture in VMware Cloud
Objective 2.9 – Explain the functions of Kubernetes components
Objective 2.10 – Describe the functions of VMware Tanzu products in Kubernetes life cycle management
Objective 2.11 – Explain Tanzu Kubernetes Grid concepts

Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Objective 3.1 – Understand configuration sizing requirements for a VMware Cloud SDDC
Objective 3.2 – Understand considerations for installing VMware Cloud on Dell EMC and VMware Cloud on AWS Outposts on-premises

Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 – Deploy and configure VMware HCX appliances
Objective 4.2 – Configure connectivity between clouds (VPN, AWS Direct Connect, VMware Managed Transit Gateway)
Objective 4.3 – Set up Hybrid Linked Mode using the VMware Cloud Gateway Appliance
Objective 4.4 – Deploy and configure cloud business continuity and disaster recovery (BC/DR) solutions
Objective 4.5 – Assess the requirements for cloud onboarding within a VMware single- or multi-cloud environment
Objective 4.6 – Assess the required account access and privileges for an SDDC deployment within a VMware single- or multi-cloud environment
Objective 4.7 – Understand the concept of different types of segments (compute and management)
Objective 4.8 – Understand hyperscaler networking considerations
Objective 4.9 – Understand the concept of dynamic SDDC scale-out
Objective 4.10 – Complete cluster operations

Section 5 – Performance-tuning and Optimization
Objective 5.1 – Determine networking performance
Objective 5.2 – Determine storage performance
Objective 5.3 – Optimize the guest OS configuration

Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 – Troubleshoot networking issues
Objective 6.2 – Troubleshoot internetworking
Objective 6.3 – Troubleshoot security
Objective 6.4 – Troubleshoot workloads
Objective 6.5 – Troubleshoot storage

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 – Create and manage user account and role permissions
Objective 7.2 – Create a content library
Objective 7.3 – Create and manage network segments
Objective 7.4 – Create and manage VM snapshots
Objective 7.5 – Monitor VMware NSX networking within VMware Cloud
Objective 7.6 – Determine the appropriate network connectivity option for connecting to and from VMware Cloud
Objective 7.7 – Recognize management and operational responsibilities in VMware Cloud on AWS
Objective 7.8 – Describe elements of the service management process
Objective 7.9 – Recognize update and upgrade responsibilities of various components for VMware Cloud on AWS

QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator is managing a container environment. The application team has complained that they need to manually restart containers in the event of a failure.
Which solution can the administrator implement to solve this issue?

A. Kubernetes
B. VMware vSphere High Availability
C. VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance
D. Prometheus

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the VMware Cloud on AWS Compute Gateway (CGW)?

A. A Tier-1 router that handles routing and firewalling for the VMware vCenter Server and other management appliances running in the software-defined data center (SDDC)
B. A Tier-1 router that handles workload traffic that is connected to routed compute network segments
C. A Tier-0 router that handles routing and firewalling for the VMware vCenter Server and other management appliances running in the software-defined data center (SDDC)
D. A Tier-0 router that handles workload traffic that is connected to routed compute network segments

Answer: B
Compute Gateway (CGW) The CGW is a Tier 1 router that handles network traffic for workload VMs connected to routed compute network segments. Compute gateway firewall rules, along with NAT
rules, run on the Tier 0 router. In the default configuration, these rules block all traffic to and from compute network segments (see Configure Compute Gateway Networking and Security).

QUESTION 3
A cloud administrator is managing a VMware Cloud on AWS environment connected to an onwww.
premises data center using IPSec VPN connection. The administrator is Informed of performance
issues with applications replicating data between VMware Cloud and the on-premises data center.
The total bandwidth used by this replication is 3.8 Gbps.
What should the administrator do to improve application performance?

A. Deploy VMware HCX.
B. Deploy AWS Direct Connect.
C. Deploy a layer 2 VPN connection.
D. Contact VMware support to request more bandwidth for IPSec VPN connection.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION 4
With which solution is the cloud administrator interfacing when defining storage policies in a VMware Cloud software-defined data center (SDDC)?

A. VMware Virtual Volumes (vVols)
B. VMware vSAN
C. iSCSI
D. VMware Virtual Machine File System (VMFS)

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When configuring Hybrid Linked Mode, what is the maximum supported latency between an on premises environment and a VMware Cloud on AWS software-defined data center (SDDC)?

A. 200 milliseconds round trip
B. 250 milliseconds round trip
C. 150 milliseconds round trip
D. 100 milliseconds round trip

Answer: D
Hybrid Linked Mode can tolerate a time skew of up to ten minutes between the on-premises data center and the cloud SDDC. The maximum latency between your cloud SDDC and on-premises data center cannot exceed 100 msec roundtrip.

Scrum Certified SAFe Lean Portfolio Manager Exam Dumps

 

Detail
When you are ready to take the exam, log into the SAFe Community Platform to access the exam.
When the exam timer ends, the exam will be submitted, regardless of the number of questions answered. A score will be calculated based on the number of questions answered. Unanswered questions will be automatically marked as incorrect. If you finish answering all questions before the exam timer ends, you can click the “Submit” button and your score will be calculated.

When you launch the exam, you will be required to review and accept the Candidate Agreement before starting the exam. Exams are timed and the timer will be visible throughout the exam.
Questions are structured in multiple choice or multiple response format.

Questions will require either one answer or multiple. “Choose two” or a “Choose three” style multiple response questions indicate the number of answers required for the question. Multiple response questions require all correct answers to be selected as no partial credit is given.

Duration : 90 minutes
Number of questions : 45
Passing score : 32/45 (71%)
Competency level : Foundational difficulty; Competent, some knowledge or experience; can perform tasks with assistance
Question format : Multiple choice (one answer) or multiple select (2-3 answers)
Delivery : Web-based, closed book, no outside assistance, timed
Access : Community Platform upon completion of the course
Languages offered : English, Japanese (5.1.2), Simplified Chinese (5.1.2)
First attempt included in the course registration fee if taken within 30 days of course completion.

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Exam Sections and Percentages
Introducing Lean Portfolio Management (16%)
Discuss the purpose of SAFe Lean Portfolio Management
Explain the Lean-Agile mindset and SAFe principles
Discuss the problems of project-cost accounting
Discuss the key benefits of organizing around value
Define the SAFe portfolio structure
Explain the shift to Lean Portfolio Management

Establishing strategy and investment funding (16%)
Connect the portfolio to the Enterprise strategy
Develop the Portfolio Vision
Develop the Portfolio Roadmap
Discuss how to execute the Strategic Portfolio Review

Realizing portfolio vision through Epics (13%)
Define Portfolio Epics
Estimate Epic Costs
Manage innovation through the SAFe Lean Startup Cycle

Establishing investment funding (16%)
Establish Lean Budget Guardrails
Establish Value Stream budgets

Managing portfolio flow (16%)
Establish flow with the Portfolio Kanban
Prioritize Epic implementation with WSJF

Applying Agile portfolio operations (13%)
Describe Value Stream coordination
Support program execution and foster operational excellence

Applying Lean governance (10%)
Measure Lean portfolio performance
Discuss the Portfolio Sync
Explore coordinating continuous compliance
Relate Technology Business Management to SAFe LPM
Explain Agile development software capitalization

Question: 1
Which of the following artifacts contains the steps and the people who develop solutions used by operational value streams?

A. Operational value streams
B. Portfolio Road map
C. Development value streams
D. Portfolio Canvas
E. Strategic Themes

Answer: C

Question: 2
Which Portfolio investment Horizon usually consumes the majority of a portfolio budget?

A. Horizon 1
B. Horizon 2
C. Horizon 3
D. Horizon 0

Answer: A

Question: 3
Which of the following Events is not an LPM event? (Choose three)

A. I&A
B. Strategic Portfolio Review
C. Participatory Budgeting
D. IP Iteration
E. ART Lunch
F. Portfolio Sync

Answer: A,D,E

Question: 4
When applying WSJF technique, which of the following is considered as a good proxy for project duration

A. The Job Size
B. The Cost of Delay
C. The Time Criticality
D. The WIP limit
E. The user Business value

Answer: A

Question: 5
Which if the following roles has a key roles in lean governance? (Choose three)

A. Solution Management
B. Business Owners
C. Enterprise Architect
D. Solution Train Engineer
E. Solution Architect/Engineer
F. Agile PMO / LACE

Answer: B,C,F

DASM Disciplined Agile Scrum Master Exam

 

DASM Disciplined Agile Scrum Master Exam

Online Learning Course
Self-paced online learning
9 modules totaling up to 14 hours
Learn on any device
Access to Disciplined Agile tool kit and digital version of the Choose Your WoW book

Do you find yourself...
Facing an ever-changing environment?
Using a framework of steps that makes no sense?
Feeling your agile practice doesn’t deliver what it should?

The DASM certification equips you to successfully lead agile teams, thereby future-proofing your career in a world in which agile is fast becoming the way forward. The Disciplined Agile® tool kit includes hundreds of proven practices, including Scrum, Kanban, SAFe®, and even some predictive approaches, and puts them into context.

By taking the course — and becoming DASM certified — you’ll understand how to customize your way of working to the approach that makes sense for the situation you face in your organization and industry.

What You Will Learn
Grasp the fundamentals of agile and lean, and how you can practically use both approaches to produce value for your teams.
Explore multiple agile and lean techniques from methods such as Scrum, Kanban, SAFe®, and more.
Understand how to put these techniques into practice and ensure successful agile implementation.
Appreciate the DA™ mindset and its underlying principles, such as pragmatism, the power of choice, and adapting to context.
Learn how to apply the Disciplined Agile tool kit to discover the most effective way of working (WoW) for you, and your team in your unique situation.

Course Outline
All about Agile
Agile and beyond
Building and supporting a Disciplined Agile team
Choosing your way of working (WoW)
Initiating your team: Tailoring a fit-for-purpose WoW
Building a solution: Tailoring a fit-for-purpose WoW
Deploying your solution: Tailoring a fit-for-purpose WoW
Ensuring that your team improves, succeeds, and has fun doing so on an ongoing basis
Influence outside the team

Requirements
None. This course is for people who are new to Agile. 

If you are completely unfamiliar with Agile then we suggest that you watch our free 45-minute video, Basics of Scrum.

How it Works
Take an instructor-led training or self-paced online course.
Complete the course to receive your DASM exam invitation. You will have 60 days to take the exam (fee is included in tuition).
After passing the exam, you will receive your badge and certification.
The certification is valid for one year and can be renewed upon expiry.

Examination Content Outline
The following table identifies the proportion of questions from each domain that will appear on the examination.
1 Foundations of Agile 30%
2 Foundations of Lean 20%
3 Foundations of Disciplined Agile 24%
4 Choose y our WoW 26%
TOTAL : 100%

1 Foundations of Agile 30%
1.1 Understand the Agile mindset
1.2 Differentiate between the iterative ceremonies
1.3 Define user stories

2 Foundations of Lean 20%
2.1 Understand the principles of Lean
2.2 Recognize how to optimize lean delivery
2.3 Describe how to learn pragmatically
2.4 Understand the team

3 Foundations of Disciplined Agile 24%
3.1 Understand the Disciplined Agile mindset
3.2 Identify the value proposition of DA
3.3 List and describe the 8 principles of DA and when to use them
3.4 Classify the DA life cycles and phases
3.5 Classify the DA roles within a self-organizing team
3.6 Identify goals using the DA toolkit

4 Choose your WoW 26%
4.1 Distinguish how people are organized within DA teams
4.2 Select your team’s way of working

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QUESTION 1
Push is when work is:

A. Expedited to meet a deadline.
B. Delayed until later.
C. Given to people.
D. Outsourced to a vendor.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Push and pull are techniques of working

QUESTION 2
How should iterations for an agile project be planned?

A. Throughout the project by using iteration reviews to continuously improve quality.
B. Iteratively by the product owner to ensure global optimization.
C. At the beginning of each iteration by pulling from product backlog.
D. At the retrospective meetings to ensure nothing is missed from one iteration to the next.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are the eight principles of Disciplined Agile?

A. Customer Satisfaction, Market Awareness, Be Awesome, Pragmatism, Quick Decisions, Fail Fast, Choice is Good, Customer Satisfaction.
B. Delight Customers, Be Awesome, Pragmatism, Context Counts, Choice Good, Optimize Flow, Enterprise Awareness, Organize around products/services.
C. Customer Satisfaction, Market Awareness, Be Awesome, Pragmatism, Context Counts, Minimize Cost, Choice is Good, Use Logic.
D. Delight Customers, Be Awesome, Use Logic, Fail Fast, Enterprise Awareness, Optimize Process, Choice is Good, Organize around products/services.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In fact, the DA tool kit has always been a hybrid of great strategies from the very beginning, with the focus being on how all of these strategies fit together in practice. (Choose Your WoW, We Believe in These Principles, page 24).

QUESTION 4
Identify three principles of the Disciplined Agile mindset. (Choose three)

A. Delight customers.
B. Accelerate delivery.
C. Enterprise awareness.
D. Be a servant leader.
E. Be pragmatic.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
(Choose Your WoW, The Disciplined Agile Mindset, page 23).

QUESTION 5
Which is not a feature of a user story?

A. Testable
B. Estimable
C. Negotiable
D. Achievable

Answer: D

Explanation:
One or two sentences to describe something of value to a user [W, ObjectPrimer]. (Choose Your WoW, Explore Usage, page 139)

PSPO-I Professional Scrum Product Owner I Exam

 

How To Pass The Professional Scrum Product Owner I (PSPO I) Assessment From Scrum.org

Prove Your Knowledge of Product Ownership
The Professional Scrum Product Owner (PSPO I) certification validates your knowledge of the Scrum framework and your ability to support and enable value creation and delivery. Earning PSPO I shows your understanding of how to bridge the gap between strategy and agile product management in order to create valuable products using Scrum.

While attendance is not a prerequisite, the Professional Scrum Product Owner course is highly recommended. PSPO I ensures you have a fundamental understanding of the accountabilities of the Product Owner. Many questions focus on the Product Owner accountabilities based on the Scrum Guide and also the application of Scrum based on your own experience.

PSPO I includes questions from the following Focus Areas as defined in the Professional Scrum Competencies.
Understanding and Applying the Scrum Framework:
Empiricism, Scrum Team, Events, Artifacts, Done
Developing People and Teams:
Self-Managing Teams
Managing Products with Agility:
Forecasting & Release Planning, Product Vision, Product Value, Product Backlog Management, Business Strategy, Stakeholders & Customers

Translation
Many people successfully use the Google Translate Plugin to take the test in their native language. If you plan to use the Google Translate Plugin you MUST follow these instructions for using the Google Translate Plugin. We cannot guarantee the quality of the translation, however feedback has been quite good.
Accommodations for Physical or Intellectual Disabilities

We take these considerations very seriously, and examine each case individually. Please contact support@scrum.org regarding your circumstances and we can advise you on next steps.

Certification Details
Passing score: 85%
Time limit: 60 minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Format: Multiple Choice, Multiple Answer, True/False
Free Credly digital credential included
Recommended course: Professional Scrum Product Owner
Practice assessments: Scrum Open and Product Owner Open
Passwords have no expiration date, but are valid for one attempt only
Lifetime certification - no annual renewal fee required

Why Scrum.org
Unlike other Scrum certifications that are awarded for attendance in a class, earning a Scrum.org certification requires proof of knowledge and understanding by passing the certification test. You can take the Professional Scrum certification test whether you have attended a Scrum.org class or not, though each Scrum.org training class is a great learning experience and includes a free attempt at the associated certification.

Protecting the integrity of the certification process is very important to us. By taking a test with Scrum.org you agree to abide by our Standard of Conduct. You will not receive information about the specific questions that were answered correctly or incorrectly, however you will receive a breakdown of your performance based on the Professional Scrum Competencies.

Find out more about what makes Scrum.org different.

Professional Scrum Product Owner™ Training
In the Professional Scrum Product Owner course, explore and learn to apply the accountabilities of the Product Owner and the principles of Professional Scrum. Gain an understanding of the pivotal role the Product Owner plays in bridging strategy and agile product management in order to help the Scrum Team create valuable products.

Topic Details
Understanding and Applying the Scrum Framework

Empiricism
A cornerstone to Scrum and Agile. A practitioner will be able to apply the concepts of the empirical process to the problems they encounter. That means they can describe problems in terms of learning, break problems down into the smallest increments that will generate valuable evidence, and execute in an empirical way. By learning and practicing the skills in this Focus Area, a practitioner will become an expert in the application of scientific methods to complex problems, understanding why and how to apply an empirical process.

Roles
The three Scrum roles of Product Owner, Scrum Master, and Development Team Member form the foundation for clear responsibilities and focus. In this Focus Area, the practitioner will understand the roles, their responsibilities, and also how to instantiate these roles in existing or new job titles. They will be able to describe the implications of these roles as they apply to existing HR practices and as they apply to self-organization that is reinforced by the role separation.

Events
The Scrum framework describes 5 events: The Sprint, Sprint Planning, Daily Scrum, Sprint Review, and the Sprint Retrospective. All events are time-boxed and enable progress through adaptation and transparency. The practitioner will understand the events and be able to practice each event, but more importantly be able to apply these events in complex situations and at scale. The events are used to uphold empirical process control, through the three pillars of Scrum: transparency, inspection, and adaptation.

Artifacts
The Scrum framework describes 3 artifacts. The Product Backlog, Sprint Backlog, and Increment. These artifacts provide the team with a minimal set of materials to plan, execute, and review the Sprint. The Practitioner will understand these artifacts and how to implement them in complex, real-world situations. They will also understand the relationship of these artifacts relative to other practices and techniques and how to integrate them into an organization's own process.

Done
The objective of each Sprint is to deliver a “Done” product increment. The Definition of Done (DoD) provides a way for the team to make what “Done” means transparent. In this Focus Area, the practitioner will be able to describe what a DoD is, apply it to their particular context, and understand how the DoD can be visualized and communicated within the organization. They will also be able to describe the implications of the necessary trade-offs and compromises required to deliver “Done” Product Increments within their organization.

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Developing People and Teams

Self-Organizing Teams
A fundamental foundational element to Scrum; self-organizing and empowered teams are the engine to delivering value. Practitioners need to understand what self-organization is and how to apply it to their context. They should also understand how to incrementally introduce self-organization, the practices that can help self-organization occur, and the measures that help one judge if a team is able to be empowered to self-organize.

Facilitation
Making decisions, sharing ideas, and being transparent is easy to agree to, but in reality, it is hard to do. Facilitation is a set of practices that help support the collaboration, communication, and creativity of teams and individuals. The practitioner should understand the value of facilitation, and have a collection of techniques they can apply. They should also have experience applying them in different situations with varying levels of complexity.

Leadership Styles
There are many different leadership styles ranging from traditional ‘command and control’ to more collaborative or even Machiavellian. Understanding the right style to use at a given time and how different styles can influence - in a positive or negative way - the agile agenda of empiricism, empowerment, and improvement is a key Focus Area. Practitioners should understand the concepts of leadership styles and be able to apply a particular style when the situation calls for it. They should also be able to demonstrate their ability to decide on the right style and understand its impact on the organization.

Coaching and Mentoring
A key aspect of servant leadership is the ability to coach and mentor the organization, the team, and the business. The objective of coaching and mentoring is to help people get better at their work, deliver more value, or resolve a conflict or problem. The practitioner should be able to coach as well as mentor. They should understand different formal techniques and be able to apply those techniques in different complex situations.

Teaching
The ability to inspire others to learn and share information in an effective, repeatable, and efficient manner is a key aspect to any agile practitioners' skills. The practitioner should understand the value of teaching and appreciate the means of measuring the success of their teaching. They should understand different learning approaches and understand when to apply different techniques in different contexts.

Managing Products with Agility

Forecasting & Release Planning
Complex problems and the application of an empirical process requires a specific way of planning, estimating, and forecasting. Practitioners should be able to apply agile forecasting and release planning techniques, and understand the value of different approaches. They should understand which approaches work better in different situations. They should also understand how releases should be planned while dealing with complexity, dependencies, and value creation.

Product Vision
The Product Vision defines the purpose or goal that the product serves, and is defined by the “value” that the product strives to deliver. It should be the "true north" for the product and should not be affected by the day-to-day difficulties or challenges of delivery. The Product Vision only changes if the goal of the product changes, such as when a business pivot happens. Practitioners should be able to describe what a product vision is and what techniques should be employed to both build a vision and make it transparent. They should also understand how to use a Product Vision to drive strategy and execution, and how to build a vision that motivates, communicates, and provides constraints for delivery.

Product Value
The ultimate goal is to deliver value to the customer and stakeholders. But value is complex, made up of long-term and short-term impact, internal and external value, and indirect and direct value. The practitioner should be able to understand how to define value for context, and apply it to the work they and the team do. They should be able to manage others' understanding of value and apply different techniques and practices for defining, communicating and measuring value. They should understand the connection between value and empirical process, and how value should be the driving factor of the Product Vision.

Product Backlog Management
The Product Backlog is a key artifact within Scrum. It is an ordered list that describes what is needed in the product. The Product Backlog provides transparency into what is happening to the product for the team, organization, and stakeholders. The practitioner should be able to describe what a Product Backlog is and apply a variety of techniques for managing the backlog. They should also understand how to make the Product Backlog transparent and how to manage stakeholder expectations associated with the backlog.

Business Strategy
A product lives within the context of a business strategy. That strategy describes how the Product Vision will be executed in a broader context. A practitioner will understand techniques for exposing business strategy and show how it drives the product. They will understand approaches, such as Lean Startup and Design Thinking, and how those affect the flow of ideas from strategy to execution. They will understand how an empirical process affects the execution and feedback of a strategy.

Stakeholders & Customers
Effectively working with stakeholders and customers is a key skill for both the Product Owner and the Development Team. Scrum changes the nature of the interactions, encouraging more frequent collaboration and more open dialogue. The practitioner will understand the implication moving to an Agile approach will have to their stakeholders and customers and also become familiar with practices that will help them work and collaborate in a more agile way.

Both Scrum.org and veterans who’ve earned multiple certifications maintain that the best preparation for a Scrum.org PSPO I professional certification exam is practical experience, hands-on training and practice exam. This is the most effective way to gain in-depth understanding of Scrum.org PSPO 1 concepts. When you understand techniques, it helps you retain Scrum.org Professional Scrum Product Owner knowledge and recall that when needed.

QUESTION 1
What is the main reason for the Product Owner to be part of the Daily Scrum?

A. It is not required for the Product Owner to participate.
B. To assign the Developers the daily tasks.
C. To track the progress of the Project.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which Scrum accountabilities (roles = outdated term) have to attend the Daily Scrum?

A. The Scrum Master.
B. The Project Manager.
C. The Developers.
D. The Product Owner.
E. The Business Analyst.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What may happen if the Scrum Teams composition changes during the project?

A. The productivity will increase due to new ideas.
B. The roles are clearly defined - nothing will happen.
C. Often a short-term reduction in productivity can be seen.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes best the Sprint Review?

A. It is a meeting for the inspection of the Increment and to collect feedback.
B. It is a meeting to do the controlling and evaluation in regards to the developers work.
C. It is a formal meeting to receive the approval for the work that was done.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two of the following services are expected from a Scrum Master to a Product Owner.

A. The Scrum Master should help the Product Owner to find techniques for managing the Product Backlog.
B. The Scrum Master should help the Product Owner to do the documentation.
C. The Scrum Master should remove impediments for the Scrum Team (incl. Product Owner).
D. The Scrum Master should act as a "middleman" between the Product Owner and the Developers.

Answer: A,C

PfMP Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP) Exam Dumps

 

IMPORTANT UPDATE

PMI is committed to the safety and well-being of our global community. Resulting from COVID-19, there have been significant changes to certification testing that may impact you. Please refer to our COVID-19 page for the most up to date information and guidance.

At this time, we are experiencing a surge in applications for Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP)®. We ask for your patience as the panel review process may currently take up to 60 days to complete. Our service always continues to remain our top priority, and we continue to look forward to supporting you now and into the future.

Your organization does the work right. But does it do the right work? As a portfolio manager, your role is essential to ensuring that the answer is “Yes.”

Formal portfolio management is the most effective way to implement strategic initiatives because it bridges the gap between strategy and implementation. Organizations that are effective in portfolio management had 62 percent of products meet or exceed expected ROI according to our 2012 Pulse of the Profession® research. Portfolio managers align projects, programs and operations with strategic objectives, investing resources in the right work to deliver the expected value.

The Portfolio Management Professional (PfMP) signifies your advanced competency in the coordinated management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives. Organizations with mature project portfolio management practices complete 35 percent more of their programs successfully. They fail less often and waste less money according to our 2015 thought leadership report, Delivering on Strategy: The Power of Project Portfolio Management. 

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Who Should Apply?
If you’re an executive or senior-level practitioner managing a portfolio of projects and programs aligned with organizational strategy and focused on doing the right work, then the PfMP is the right choice for you.

Gain and Maintain Your PfMP
First phase of evaluation is panel review
The certification exam has 170 multiple-choice questions and you have four hours to complete it.
To maintain your PfMP, you must earn 60 professional development units (PDUs) in portfolio management topics every three years.

Prerequisites
All applicants must possess a minimum of 96 months of professional business experience within the last 15 years AND Secondary degree (high school diploma, associate’s degree or the global equivalent) 84 months of portfolio management experience

or

All applicants must possess a minimum of 96 months of professional business experience within the last 15 years AND Four-year degree (bachelor’s degree or the global equivalent) 48 months of portfolio management experience percentages are used to determine the number of questions related to each domain and task that should appear on the multiple-choice format examination.

Domain Percentage of Items on Exam
Strategic Alignment 25%
Governance 20%
Portfolio Performance 25%
Portfolio Risk Management 15%
Communications Management 15%

Domain 1: Strategic Alignment
The Strategic Alignment domain includes the continuous activities necessary for aligning portfolio components (programs, projects, and operations) with organizational strategic objectives, goals, and priorities. Portfolio strategic alignment also involves recommending portfolio scenarios and related components to create an initial high level portfolio roadmap.

Domain 2: Governance
The Governance domain includes activities related to establishing the governance model, developing the portfolio management plan, and approving the portfolio. Tasks in the Governance domain ensure that portfolio components are authorized and processes and procedures are developed and continuously improved.

Domain 3: Portfolio Performance
The Portfolio Performance domain includes the activities required for managing the portfolio using the portfolio processes as defined by the governance model; continuously monitoring and evaluating the performance of the consolidated portfolio components in order to balance the portfolio; and reporting on progress towards the achievement of strategic objectives.

Domain 4: Portfolio Risk Management
Portfolio Risk Management includes activities related to the balancing and management of portfolio risk consistent with the risk appetite of the organization and facilitates decision making.

Domain 5: Communications Management
The Communications Management domain includes activities related to continuously communicating with stakeholders; understanding their needs and expectations; addressing issues as they occur; managing conflicting interests; and fostering appropriate stakeholder engagement in portfolio decisions and activities.

 

QUESTION 1
When we talk about portfolios, programs and projects, it is inevitable to mention the business value which is the sum of tangible and intangible assets of an organization, also known as the net quantifiable benefit.
When it comes to business value, at which level of the organization is the pursuit of Business Value optimized?

A. Program
B. Portfolio
C. Operational
D. Project

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Stakeholders have complained to you that they are receiving redundant information and they prefer that you fix the issue promptly as it is time consuming for them. What is your best course of action?

A. Explain to the stakeholders why it is important that they keep receiving this information
B. Re-assess and re-write the Communication Management Plan after analyzing the stakeholders again
C. Escalate the issue to the governance board and ask them to take a decision regarding it
D. Update the communication matrix and remove them from it

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have just finished a major checkpoint in your portfolio and the portfolio has to undergo several changes in order to re-align with the strategies. One component of your portfolio has been cancelled and the resources are going to be reallocated to other components. Which process does these activities?

A. Manage Supply & Demand
B. Authorize Portfolio
C. Manage Portfolio Oversight
D. Optimize Portfolio

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
When developing the charter, you will use multiple inputs and documents of which the portfolio Strategic Plan is one. How is the strategic plan used in this case?

A. It is not an input to this process
B. The Portfolio Structure and Portfolio Manager's Authorizations are copied from the Portfolio Strategic Plan as is and incorporated in the Charter
C. It is updated based on the output of the Develop portfolio charter process
D. The prioritization model is used as a decision framework to structure the portfolio components

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When we talk about portfolios, programs and projects, it is inevitable to mention the business value which is the sum of tangible and intangible assets of an organization, also known as the net quantifiable benefit. When it comes to business value, at which level of the organization is the Business Value achieved?

A. Program
B. Project
C. Portfolio
D. Operational

Answer: D
 

ISC HCISPP HealthCare Information Security and Privacy Practitioner Exam

 

What is the HCISPP? Healthcare Information Security & Privacy Practitioner

the worldwide healthcare zone is anticipated to be one of the fastest-developing employers for the following 10 years. With the growth of the healthcare industry, the risks and outcomes of retaining fitness statistics covered and secure are increasing. accordingly, the want for qualified specialists with the vital competence to comfortable and defend health information is likewise increasing. Healthcare employers are seeking out such personnel to help them shield vital affected person statistics.

The HCISPP certification aids both the job seekers and the employers to demonstrate their abilities and commitment towards privacy and security of healthcare data.

Become an HCISPP – HealthCare Information Security and Privacy Practitioner

Earning the HCISPP healthcare cybersecurity certification is a proven way to build your career and show employers you’re on the forefront of protecting patient health information and navigating a complex regulatory environment.

The HCISPP is the only certification that combines cybersecurity skills with privacy best practices and techniques. It demonstrates you have the knowledge and ability to implement, manage and assess security and privacy controls to protect healthcare organizations using policies and procedures established by the cybersecurity experts at (ISC)².

Prove your skills, advance your career, and gain support from a community of cybersecurity leaders here to help you throughout your professional journey.

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Free HCISPP Ultimate Guide

Learn everything you need to know about preparing for the HCISPP exam, including:
Why you should get certified
HCISPP Fast Facts
What to expect on the exam
How to prepare for the exam
Value of (ISC)² certification

Who Earns the HCISPP?
The HCISPP is ideal for information security professionals charged with guarding protected health information (PHI), including those in the following positions:

Compliance Officer
Information Security Manager
Privacy Officer
Compliance Auditor
Risk Analyst

Medical Records Supervisor
Information Technology Manager
Privacy and Security Consultant
Health Information Manager
Practice Manager

Work in government? See how the HCISPP meets the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Directive 8570.1.

Is the HCISPP Right for You?
The HCISPP isn’t the best security IT certification option for everyone. Before you start down your certification path, make sure you aren’t missing an opportunity to pursue a credential more aligned with your immediate career goals.

Our broad portfolio of accredited security certifications, include:

HCISPP Experience Requirements
Candidates must have a minimum of two years cumulative paid work experience in one or more knowledge areas of the HCISPP CBK that includes security, compliance and privacy. Legal experience may be substituted for compliance and information management experience may be substituted for privacy. Of the two years of experience, one of those years must be in the healthcare industry.

A candidate who doesn’t have the required experience to become a HCISPP may become an Associate of (ISC)² by successfully passing the HCISPP examination. The Associate of (ISC)² will then have three years to earn the two years required experience.

Part-time work and internships may also count towards your experience.

Work Experience
Valid experience includes information systems security-related work performed for a healthcare organization or work that requires healthcare security and privacy controls and involves direct application of that knowledge. Experience must fall within one or more of the seven domains of the (ISC)² HCISPP CBK:

Domain 1. Healthcare Industry
Domain 2. Information Governance in Healthcare
Domain 3. Information Technologies in Healthcare
Domain 4. Regulatory and Standards Environment
Domain 5. Privacy and Security in Healthcare
Domain 6. Risk Management and Risk Assessment
Domain 7. Third-Party Risk Management

Full-Time Experience: Your work experience is accrued monthly. Thus, you must have worked a minimum of 35 hours/week for four weeks in order to accrue one month of work experience

Part-Time Experience: Your part-time experience cannot be less than 20 hours a week and no more than 34 hours a week.

1040 hours of part-time = 6 months of full time experience
2080 hours of part-time = 12 months of full time experience

Internship: Paid or unpaid internship is acceptable. You will need documentation on company/organization letterhead confirming your position as an intern. If you are interning at a school, the document can be on the registrar’s stationery.

QUESTION 1
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?
During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?

A. Document the system as highrisk
B. Perform a vulnerability assessment
C. Perform a quantitative threat assessment
D. Notate the information and moveon

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A health care provider is considering Internet access for their employees and patients. Which of the following is the organization's MOST secure solution for protection of data?

A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and digital signatures
B. Trusted server certificates and passphrases
C. User ID and password
D. Asymmetric encryption and UserID

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the BEST internationally recognized standard for evaluating security products and systems?

A. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
B. Common Criteria (CC)
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The threat modeling identifies a man-in-the-middle (MITM) exposure. Which countermeasure should the information system security officer (ISSO) select to mitigate the risk of a protected Health information (PHI) data leak?

A. Auditing
B. Anonymization
C. Privacy monitoring
D. Data retention

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is considered the last line defense in regard to a Governance, Risk managements, and compliance (GRC) program?

A. Internal audit
B. Internal controls
C. Board review
D. Risk management

Answer: B

SAP-C02 Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional Exam Dumps

 

AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional
Learn more about this certification and AWS resources that can help you prepare

This credential helps certified individuals showcase advanced knowledge and skills in providing complex solutions to complex problems, optimizing security, cost, and performance, and automating manual processes. This certification is a means for organizations to identify and develop talent with these critical skills for implementing cloud initiatives.

Exam overview
Level: Professional
Length: 180 minutes to complete the exam
Visit Exam pricing for additional cost information.
Format: 75 questions, either multiple choice or multiple response

Who should take this exam?
AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional is intended for individuals with two or more years of hands-on experience designing and deploying cloud architecture on AWS. Before you take this exam, we recommend you have:

Familiarity with AWS CLI, AWS APIs, AWS CloudFormation templates, the AWS Billing Console, the AWS Management Console, a scripting language, and Windows and Linux environments
Ability to provide best practice guidance on the architectural design across multiple applications and projects of the enterprise as well as an ability to map business objectives to application/architecture requirements

Ability to evaluate cloud application requirements and make architectural recommendations for implementation, deployment, and provisioning applications on AWS
Ability to design a hybrid architecture using key AWS technologies (e.g., VPN, AWS Direct Connect) as well as a continuous integration and deployment process

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What does it take to earn this certification?
To earn this certification, you’ll need to take and pass the AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional exam (SAP-C02). The exam features a combination of two question formats: multiple choice and multiple response. Additional information, such as the exam content outline and passing score, is in the exam guide.

Review sample questions that demonstrate the format of the questions used on this exam and include rationales for the correct answers.

Prepare for your exam
You’ve set your goal. Now it’s time to build knowledge and skills to propel your career. Check out these resources from AWS Training and Certification that are relevant to AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional. We don’t require that you take any specific training before you take an exam. These recommended resources are opportunities to learn from the experts at AWS.

Additional resources – including AWS Builder Labs and game-based learning to complement your prep – are available with a subscription on AWS Skill Builder.

Introduction
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional (SAP-C02) exam is intended for individuals who perform a solutions architect role. The exam validates a candidate’s advanced technical skills and experience in designing optimized AWS solutions that are based on the AWS Well-Architected Framework.

The exam also validates a candidate’s ability to complete the following tasks within the scope of the AWS Well-Architected Framework:
• Design for organizational complexity
• Design for new solutions
• Continuously improve existing solutions
• Accelerate workload migration and modernization

Target candidate description
The target candidate has 2 or more years of experience in using AWS services to design and implement cloud solutions. This candidate has the ability to evaluate cloud application requirements and make architectural recommendations for deployment of applications on AWS. The target candidate also can provide expert guidance about architectural design that extends across multiple applications and projects within a complex organization.
Exam content
Response types

There are two types of questions on the exam:
• Multiple choice: Has one correct response and three incorrect responses (distractors)
• Multiple response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more response options

Select one or more responses that best completes the statement or answers the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that a candidate with incomplete knowledge or skill might choose. Distractors are generally plausible responses that match the content area.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing. The exam includes 65 questions that will affect your score.

Unscored content
The exam includes 10 unscored questions that do not affect your score. AWS collects information about candidate performance on these unscored questions to evaluate these questions for future use as scored questions. These unscored questions are not identified on the exam.

Exam results
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect - Professional (SAP-C02) exam is a pass or fail exam. The exam is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who follow certification industry best practices and guidelines.

Your results for the exam are reported as a scaled score of 100–1,000. The minimum passing score is 750. Your score shows how you performed on the exam as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models help equate scores across multiple exam forms that might have slightly different difficulty levels.
Your score report could contain a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is intended to provide general feedback about your exam performance. The exam uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to achieve a passing score in each section. You need to pass only the overall exam.
Each section of the exam has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than other sections have. The table contains general information that highlights your strengths and weaknesses. Use caution when interpreting section-level feedback. Candidates who pass the exam will not receive this additional information.
Content outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and task statements for the exam. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on the exam. However, additional context for each of the task statements is available to help guide your preparation for the exam. The following table lists the main content domains and their weightings. The table precedes the complete exam content outline, which includes the additional context. The percentage in each domain represents only scored content.

Domain % of Exam
Domain 1: Design Solutions for Organizational Complexity 26%
Domain 2: Design for New Solutions 29%
Domain 3: Continuous Improvement for Existing Solutions 25%
Domain 4: Accelerate Workload Migration and Modernization 20%
TOTAL 100%

QUESTION 1
A company is providing weather data over a REST-based API to several customers. The API is hosted by Amazon API Gateway and is integrated with different AWS Lambda functions for each API operation. The company uses Amazon Route 53 for DNS and has created a resource record of weather.example.com. The company stores data for the API in Amazon DynamoDB tables. The company needs a solution that will give the API the ability to fail over to a different AWS Region.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Deploy a new set of Lambda functions in a new Region. Update the API Gateway API to use an edge-optimized API endpoint with Lambda functions from both Regions as targets. Convert the
DynamoDB tables to global tables.

B. Deploy a new API Gateway API and Lambda functions in another Region. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a multivalue answer. Add both API Gateway APIs to the answer. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

C. Deploy a new API Gateway API and Lambda functions in another Region. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a failover record. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

D. Deploy a new API Gateway API in a new Region. Change the Lambda functions to global functions. Change the Route 53 DNS record to a multivalue answer. Add both API Gateway APIs to the answer. Enable target health monitoring. Convert the DynamoDB tables to global tables.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company is running a two-tier web-based application in an on-premises data center. The application layer consists of a single server running a stateful application. The application connects to
a PostgreSQL database running on a separate server. The application's user base is expected to grow significantly, so the company is migrating the application and database to AWS. The solution will use
Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL, Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling, and Elastic Load Balancing.
Which solution will provide a consistent user experience that will allow the application and database  tiers to scale?

A. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora Replicas. Use a Network Load Balancer with the least outstanding requests routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

B. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora writers. Use an Application Load Balancer with the round robin routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

C. Enable Aurora Auto Scaling for Aurora Replicas. Use an Application Load Balancer with the round robin routing and sticky sessions enabled.

D. Enable Aurora Scaling for Aurora writers. Use a Network Load Balancer with the least outstanding requests routing algorithm and sticky sessions enabled.

Answer: C

Aurora Auto Scaling enables your Aurora DB cluster to handle sudden increases in connectivity or workload. When the connectivity or workload decreases, Aurora Auto Scaling removes unnecessary Aurora Replicas so that you don't pay for unused provisioned DB instances

QUESTION 3
A company uses a service to collect metadata from applications that the company hosts on premises. Consumer devices such as TVs and internet radios access the applications. Many older devices do not support certain HTTP headers and exhibit errors when these headers are present in responses. The company has configured an on-premises load balancer to remove the unsupported headers from responses sent to older devices, which the company identified by the User-Agent headers. The company wants to migrate the service to AWS, adopt serverless technologies, and retain the ability to support the older devices. The company has already migrated the applications into a set of AWS Lambda functions.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the metadata service. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Configure the CloudFront distribution to forward requests to the ALB. Configure the ALB to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a CloudFront function to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent header.

B. Create an Amazon API Gateway REST API for the metadata service. Configure API Gateway to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Modify the default gateway responses to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent header.

C. Create an Amazon API Gateway HTTP API for the metadata service. Configure API Gateway to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a response mapping template to remove the problematic headers based on the value of the User-Agent. Associate the response data mapping with the HTTP API.

D. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution for the metadata service. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Configure the CloudFront distribution to forward requests to the ALB. Configure the ALB to invoke the correct Lambda function for each type of request. Create a Lambda@Edge function that will remove the problematic headers in response to viewer requests based on the value of the User-Agent header.
 
Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company is running a traditional web application on Amazon EC2 instances. The company needs to refactor the application as microservices that run on containers. Separate versions of the application exist in two distinct environments: production and testing. Load for the application is variable, but the minimum load and the maximum load are known. A solutions architect needs to design the updated application with a serverless architecture that minimizes operational complexity.
Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Upload the container images to AWS Lambda as functions. Configure a concurrency limit for the associated Lambda functions to handle the expected peak load. Configure two separate Lambda integrations within Amazon API Gateway: one for production and one for testing.

B. Upload the container images to Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Configure two auto scaled Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) clusters with the Fargate launch type to handle the expected load. Deploy tasks from the ECR images. Configure two separate Application Load Balancers to direct traffic to the ECS clusters.

C. Upload the container images to Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR). Configure two auto scaled Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) clusters with the Fargate launch type to handle the expected load. Deploy tasks from the ECR images. Configure two separate Application Load Balancers to direct traffic to the EKS clusters.

D. Upload the container images to AWS Elastic Beanstalk. In Elastic Beanstalk, create separate environments and deployments for production and testing. Configure two separate Application LoadBalancers to direct traffic to the Elastic Beanstalk deployments.

Answer: D

Explanation:
minimizes operational + microservices that run on containers = AWS Elastic Beanstalk

QUESTION 5
A company has a multi-tier web application that runs on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instances are in an Auto Scaling group. The ALB and the Auto Scaling group are replicated in a backup AWS Region. The minimum value and the maximum value for the Auto Scaling group are set to zero. An Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance stores the application's data. The DB instance has a read replica in the backup Region. The application presents an endpoint to end users by using an Amazon Route 53 record. The company needs to reduce its RTO to less than 15 minutes by giving the application the ability to automatically fail over to the backup Region. The company does not have a large enough budget for an active-active strategy. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
 

A. Reconfigure the application's Route 53 record with a latency-based routing policy that load balances traffic between the two ALBs. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that is based on the HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count metric for the ALB in the primary Region. Configure the CloudWatch alarm to invoke the Lambda function.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Configure Route 53 with a health check that monitors the web application and sends an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) notification to the Lambda function when the health check status is unhealthy. Update the application's Route 53 record with a failover policy that routes traffic to the ALB in the backup Region when a health check failure occurs.

C. Configure the Auto Scaling group in the backup Region to have the same values as the Auto Scaling group in the primary Region. Reconfigure the application's Route 53 record with a latency-based routing policy that load balances traffic between the two ALBs. Remove the read replica. Replace the read replica with a standalone RDS DB instance. Configure Cross-Region Replication between the RDS DB instances by using snapshots and Amazon S3.

D. Configure an endpoint in AWS Global Accelerator with the two ALBs as equal weighted targets. Create an AWS Lambda function in the backup Region to promote the read replica and modify the Auto Scaling group values. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that is based on the HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count metric for the ALB in the primary Region. Configure the CloudWatch alarm to invoke the Lambda function.

Answer: B